Term
| What five things are medications used for? |
|
Definition
Treat
Cure
Diagnose
Prevent disease
Provide relief |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A reference book or pamphlet that lists medications available at a specific health care facility. It also lists recommended dosages and special considerations. |
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe a new drug before the drug becomes official? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why were drug standards developed? |
|
Definition
| To ensure uniform product quality |
|
|
Term
| Who is involved in selecting, obtaining, and storing different medications, as well as accounting for the safe dispensation of medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two essential patient history considerations must be obtained and documented before administering a medication? |
|
Definition
Current medications
Allergies |
|
|
Term
| What are the "Five Rights" of medication administration? |
|
Definition
Right patient
Right medication
Right dose
Right route
Right time |
|
|
Term
| What's the first step in preparing a medication? |
|
Definition
| Verify the medication order |
|
|
Term
| What would you do if a patient refuses to take a medication? |
|
Definition
Try to find out why
Report the situation promptly to the nurse or provider
Document |
|
|
Term
| What form is used to document a medication error? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incedent Statement |
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of medication orders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the six essential parts of a drug order? |
|
Definition
Patient's name
Date order was written
Drug name
Drug dosage
Method of administration
Provider's signature |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for documenting the administration of medication? |
|
Definition
| The individual who administered the medication |
|
|
Term
| Why does the site of administration need to be documented when an injection is given? |
|
Definition
| To avoid duplicate injections at the same site |
|
|
Term
| In order to avoid errors, what do many facilities use to copy a medication order? |
|
Definition
| A computer-generated product that lists all the medication orders that apply to a particular patient |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main Federal laws that apply to the administration of drugs? |
|
Definition
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act |
|
|
Term
| When do double-locked drugs need to be accounted for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which schedule are drugs that aren't acceptable for medical use and have a high potential for abuse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aspirin with codeine falls under what schedule of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Special inventory procedures are required for what schedule of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of a pallative drug action? |
|
Definition
| Relieve symptoms of a disease without affecting the disease itself |
|
|
Term
| What category of therapeutic drug effect has the purpose of replacing body fluids or substances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you call the process in which a medication is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an overdose of a drug occurs, what normally results? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the two types of drug dependence. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of most drug therapy? |
|
Definition
| Maintain a constant level of a drug in the body in order to permit the therapeutic action to be achieved |
|
|
Term
| What factors influence the action that drugs have on a body? |
|
Definition
AGE
WEIGHT
SEX
GENETIC FACTORS
PSYCHOLOGICAL FACTORS
ILLNESS AND DISEASE
TIME OF ADMINISTRATION
ENVIRONMENT |
|
|
Term
| Why are infants highly affected by drugs? |
|
Definition
| Immature liver and kidney functions |
|
|
Term
| When patients don't believe a certain medication will help them, what factors are influencing them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do oral medications taken before meals usually act faster in the body? |
|
Definition
| Due to low digestive system content |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
PHYSICIAN'S DESK REFERENCE
It is a reference source containing the latest drug product information prepared by manufacturers |
|
|
Term
| What reference sourse is a collection of drug monographs kept current by periodic supplements prepared by pharmacists? |
|
Definition
| American Hospital Formulary Service |
|
|
Term
| What reference is a combination of two official publications? |
|
Definition
| US Pharmocopoeia-National Formulary |
|
|
Term
| Who ensures the local formulary is updated as needed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When administering medication, what dangerous practice should you avoid? |
|
Definition
| Relying on memory for drug information |
|
|
Term
| What determines which category a drug is placed in? |
|
Definition
| Specific action of the drug |
|
|
Term
| What type of preparation is described as one or more drugs disolved in water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A geletinous container that holds a drug in powder, liquid, or oil form |
|
|
Term
| What kind of drug is used to induce sleep or dull the senses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's an antiemetic used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a
a. pharmacist
b. clinical provider
c. clinical pharmacist
d. pharmaceutical technician |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Each medication can be referred to by several names. Which of these is used primarily by chemists?
a. Official name
b. Generic name
c. Chemical name
d. Trademark or brand name |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement is tue regarding the role of a medical service technician in medical administration?
a. Not trained to prepare medications
b. Permitted to administer medications under supervision of a nurse or physician |
|
Definition
| b. Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician |
|
|
Term
| The two essential patient history facts that must be obtained and documented before a medication is administered are: |
|
Definition
| allergies and current medications |
|
|
Term
Which is NOT considered a patient's right when medications are administered?
a. Be informed of the drug's name
b. Be informed of the drug's purpose
c. Choose method of administration
d. Receive clearly labeled medication containers |
|
Definition
| c. Choose method of administration |
|
|
Term
Which is not included in the "Five Rights" of medication administration?
a. Right time
b. Right dose
c. Right route
d. Right documentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?
a. Stat
b. PRN
c. Single
d. Standing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A provider can initiate a drug order in
a. only one way
b. two ways
c. four ways
d. five ways |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when a drug order is copied?
a. Kardex
b. Medication card
c. Telephone consults
d. Computer-generated products |
|
Definition
| d. Computer-generated products |
|
|
Term
Drug administration is controlled primarily by
a. state amendments
b. facility mandate
c. federal law
d. state law |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What classification of drugs are NOT acceptable for medical use?
a. Schedule I
b. Schedule II
c. Schedule III
d. Schedule IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
a. Schedule I
b. Schedule II
c. Schedule III
d. Schedule IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
a. Drug Regulatory Act
b. Drug Control Regulation
c. Controlled Substance Act
d. Attorney General Mandate of 1974 |
|
Definition
| c. Controlled Substance Act |
|
|
Term
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category or drugs?
a. Chemotherapeutic
b. Substitutive
c. Supportive
d. Curative |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a patient has an unusually low response to a drug, the condition is called
a. drug toxicity
b. a drug allergy
c. drug tolerance
d. drug interaction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? |
|
Definition
| Lower digestive system content |
|
|
Term
Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
a. Warmer temperature increases circulation
b. Warmer temperature decreases circulation
c. Warmer temperatures cause blood vessel constriction |
|
Definition
| a. Warmer temperature increases circulation |
|
|
Term
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
a. PDR
b. PRN
c. Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook
d. Technician's Pharmacy Handbook |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What publication contains a list of locally available medications, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines?
a. PDR
b. Local facility formulary
c. Nurse's drug reference
d. Technician's Pharmacy Handbook |
|
Definition
| b. Local facility formulary |
|
|
Term
An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a
a. spirit
b. paste
c. tincture
d. liniment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally describes a type of medication preparation called a
a. pill
b. paste
c. powder
d. tincture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action?
a. Antiarrhythmics
b. Antiinfectives
c. Carthatics
d. Antacids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal contents?
a. Antiarrhythmics
b. Antiemetics
c. Cathartics
d. Antacids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the five general routes of medication administration? |
|
Definition
Parenteral
Oral
Sublingual
Buccal
Topical |
|
|
Term
| What is the first step to take when preparing a medication for administration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be done if a medication is to be administered on a date other than when it was ordered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of parenteral injection methods? |
|
Definition
1. Subcutaneous
2. Intradermal
3. Intramuscular
4. Intravenous |
|
|
Term
| What type of parenteral injection technique is administered to the skin's dermis layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of IV drug administration methods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What four factors may reduce muscle mass at a potential injection site? |
|
Definition
1. Age
2. Inactivity
3. Malnutrition
4. Disease process |
|
|
Term
| What occurs within the barrel when the plunger of a syringe is pulled back? |
|
Definition
| A vacuum is created and fluid pulled into the barrel |
|
|
Term
| Why are the quadriceps femoris sites preferred for pediatric patients? |
|
Definition
| They don't contain nerves or blood vessels |
|
|
Term
| What are the three disadvantages of the oral method of administering medication? |
|
Definition
1. Possible unpleasant taste
2. Potential for gastric irritation
3. Slower rate of absorption |
|
|
Term
| Ideally, in what position should you place the patient in order to administer an oral medication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is there a minimal loss of potency when a sublingual medication is administered? |
|
Definition
| The medication bypasses the liver |
|
|
Term
| In what three general areas of the body are topical medications administered? |
|
Definition
1. Skin surfaces
2. Body cavities
3. Body orifices |
|
|
Term
| Why should you wear gloves when applying a dermatologic medication? |
|
Definition
For infection control
To avoid the medication affecting you in some way |
|
|
Term
| How often do you assess a patient's vital signs when administering an inhalation? |
|
Definition
| Before, during, and after the therapy |
|
|
Term
| In what part of the eye do you administer ophthalmic medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you administer eardrops in patients less than 3 years of age? |
|
Definition
| Gently pull the earlobe down to straighten the canal |
|
|
Term
| How do you administer eardrops in adult patients? |
|
Definition
| Pull the auricle up and back to straighten the canal |
|
|
Term
What is the first step to perform when a medication is being prepared for administration?
a. Verify the order
b. Document the date
c. Document the time
d. Gather all supplies |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which element is NOT required on a medication order?
a. Patient's age
b. Patient's name
c. Specified time
d. Provider's signature |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the route of administration a required part of a medication order? |
|
Definition
| Some medications are available in more than one form |
|
|
Term
Which is true regarding subcutaneous injections?
a. Drug action is faster than IM
b. No possibility of local infection
c. Only small amounts may be administered
d. Less expensive thanb oral meds |
|
Definition
| c. Only small amounts may be administered |
|
|
Term
Which is true regarding subcutaneous injections?
a. Drug action is faster than IM
b. No possibility of local infection
c. Only small amounts may be administered
d. Less expensive than oral meds |
|
Definition
| c. Only small amounts may be administered |
|
|
Term
| What is the method of perenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parts of a syringe are
a. hub,shaft,and collar
b. barrel,plunger,and tip
c. barrel,bevel,and gauges
d. hub,collar,and calibrations |
|
Definition
| b. barrel,plunger,and tip |
|
|
Term
The parts of a needle are the
a. hub,shaft,bevel
b. cylinder,shank,tip
c. barrel,bevel,gauges
d. hub,tip,calibrations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subcutaneous injections are commonly administered in the
a. ventral surface of the forearm
b. lateral hip area
c. posterior hand
d. upper arms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?
a. Oral
b. Buccal
c. Inhalation
d. Sublingual |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured
a. in the pharmacy
b. at a work station
c. at the nurses' station
d. at the patient's bedside |
|
Definition
| d. at the patient's bedside |
|
|
Term
| You are administering a tablet or lozenge to a buccally to a patient. Where would you place the medication? |
|
Definition
| Between the upper molars and the cheek of the patient |
|
|
Term
| When administering eye medications, why should you ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the solution from running into the unaffected eye |
|
|
Term
The proper procedure for administering inhalations into the repiratory tract of a patient is to
a. document an increase in pulse or BP and notify the nurse
b. assess the patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy |
|
Definition
| b. assess the patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy |
|
|
Term
Into which body cavity are otic medications administered?
a. External auditory canal
b. Internal auditory canal
c. Lower conjunctival sac
d. Upper conjunctival sac |
|
Definition
| a. External auditory canal |
|
|
Term
To administer ear drops in a patient 3 years of age, you would gently pull the earlobe
a. downward to straighten the canal
b. upward to shorten the canal
c. outward to expose the canal
d. inward to confine the canal |
|
Definition
| a. downward to straighten the canal |
|
|
Term
Vaginal suppositories are
a. cooled before administration
b. useful for cleansing purposes
c. administered to combat infection
d. administered along the anterior wall of the vagina |
|
Definition
| c. administered to combat infection |
|
|
Term
You are administering a vaginal douche to a female patient. To do this properly, hang the bag
a. 4 to 8 inches above the vagina
b. 6 to 10 inches above the vagina
c. 12 to 18 inches above the vagina
d. 24 to 36 inches above the vagina |
|
Definition
| c. 12 to 18 inches above the vagina |
|
|
Term
| What term is used to define a fluid volume deficit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the nine signs and symptoms of fluid volume deficit? |
|
Definition
1. Poor skin turgor
2. Concentrated urine which will result in a high specific gravity
3. Oliguria
4. Dry mucous membranes
5. Weak and rapid pulse
6. Orthostatic Hypotension
7. A low central venous pressure (below 4 cm of H2O)
8. Confusion
9. Restlessness |
|
|
Term
| What are the four disease processes mentioned in the text that can cause a fluid volume excess? |
|
Definition
1. Congestive heart failure
2. Renal failure
3. Cirrhosis
4. Cushing's syndrome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A chemical substance (ion) capable of carrying an electrical charge when it's in water |
|
|
Term
| What are eight symptoms associated with a sodium deficit? |
|
Definition
1. Confusion
2. Weakness
3. Restlessness
4. Hyperthermia
5. Tachycardia
6. Muscle twitching
7. Abdominal cramping
8. Convulsions and Coma |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs and symptoms associated with a sodium excess? |
|
Definition
| Similar to dehydration: thirst, dry sticky mucus membranes, oliguria (scanty urine output), hyperthemia, dry tongue, and lethargy |
|
|
Term
| What electrolyte deficit and excess can cause dysrhythmias leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which electrolyte in excess amounts can cause fractures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the symbol "pH" refer to? |
|
Definition
| Percentage of hydrogen ions (atoms) present in a solution |
|
|
Term
| What do you call a solution that has a high pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the normal plasma pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you call imbalance in the metabolism of food or fluids that's usually associated with insulin deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excessive gastric suctioning that removes too much hydrochloric acid can result in what type of acid-base imbalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase in carbonic acid in the body fluids associated with difficulty breathing can result in what type of acid-base balance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of acid-base imbalance is associated with a patient hyperventilating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What basic equiptment do you need to initiate an IV? |
|
Definition
| A solution container, an administration set, and a needle |
|
|
Term
| How high should the IV container be positioned? |
|
Definition
| Normally between 24 and 36 inches above the patient |
|
|
Term
| What are the eight basic components of an administration set? |
|
Definition
1. Insertion spike
2. Drip chamber
3. Plastic tubing
4. Clamp
5. Vent port
6. Medication port
7. Secondary port
8. Needle adapter |
|
|
Term
| What prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions when a piggyback setup is used? |
|
Definition
| A back-check valve on the primary tubing |
|
|
Term
| What system is used to mix medications with specific amounts of the intravenous solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three basic types of IV needles? |
|
Definition
1. Wing-tipped needle
2. Over-the-needle catheter
3. Inside-the-needle catheters |
|
|
Term
| What type of needle is most commonly used when the possibility of extravasation is possible? |
|
Definition
| Inside-the-needle catheter |
|
|
Term
| When would a volumetric pump be used? |
|
Definition
| For intra-arterial infusions or deep venous lines (cut-downs) and for patients who have multiple IV lines and whose condition is such that they could roll onto or otherwise obstruct the line. |
|
|
Term
| What type of needle is commonly used to initiate an IV in the scalp of a pediatric patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When are variable pressure volumetric pumps used? |
|
Definition
| When patients require critical volume or critical medication |
|
|
Term
| What three factors determine the type of intravenous solution to be used? |
|
Definition
1. Patient's condition
2. Fluid and electrolyte balance
3. Purpose for the IV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The relative concentration of dissolved substances in a solution as compared to the solution concentration within the red blood cells |
|
|
Term
| What type of patients should receive parenteral hyperlimentation? |
|
Definition
| Patients with gastrointestinal disorders |
|
|
Term
| Why are hyperalimentation solutions administered through central veins? |
|
Definition
| To prevent damage and irritation to the small vessels |
|
|
Term
| What condition should be treated with blood volume expanders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where are medications usually added to the IV container? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information should be included on the medication label that's placed on the side of the bottle/bag? |
|
Definition
| The name and strength of the medication that was added, as well as the date,time, and initials of the person who added the drug. |
|
|
Term
| How do you "prime" the administration set? |
|
Definition
| Insert the spike into the appropriate opening and allow a small amount of solution to flow through the tubing to eliminate air bubbles. |
|
|
Term
| What information should be included on the label attached to the administration set? |
|
Definition
Patient's name
Room number
Date
Time
Any added medications |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if there are visitors present when you're going to start an IV? |
|
Definition
| Ask them to step out of the room until the IV is in place |
|
|
Term
| What factors should you consider when selecting an IV injection site? |
|
Definition
Type of solution
Rate of infusion
Age and condition of patient
Condition of veins
Duration of therapy
Type of equiptment used |
|
|
Term
| Why is it sometimes difficult to initiate an IV on elderly patients? |
|
Definition
| They have fragile veins that collapse when punctured with a needle |
|
|
Term
| Where should you start an IV if it will be in place for a long time? |
|
Definition
| The most distal place possible to preserve other sites for future use |
|
|
Term
| What three veins are prefered fo IV sites in the hand and arm? |
|
Definition
1. Metacarpal
2. Cephalic
3. Basilic |
|
|
Term
| what should you do before you begin actual contact procedures with the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How tight should you make the tourniquet when starting an IV? |
|
Definition
| Tight enough to obstruct veous flow, but not arterial flow |
|
|
Term
| Where should you insert the needle in relation to the vein you're trying to penetrate? |
|
Definition
| About 1/2" below the planned entry site into the vein |
|
|
Term
| What precaution should you take when applying tape to a dressing? |
|
Definition
| Don't wrap the tape completely around the arm |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine whether you should immobilize an IV? |
|
Definition
It's in a precarious position
Near a joint
The patient is fairly active |
|
|
Term
| What information should you document after the IV is initiated? |
|
Definition
Date and time
Location of site
Type and size of needle
Type of solution
Rate of infusion
Any special equiptment/tubing used |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of circulatory overload? |
|
Definition
Cyanosis
Dyspnea
Coughing
Blood-tinged sputum
Edema
Distended neck veins
Weight gain
Decreased urinary output
Weak rapid pulse
Rapid shallow respirations |
|
|
Term
| What five complications are associated with the IV therapy itself? |
|
Definition
1. Alterations of infusion rate
2. Infiltration
3. Phlebitis
4. Infection
5. Embolism |
|
|
Term
| Why shouldn't you try to catch up if the infusion is behind schedule? |
|
Definition
| Such an action could cause circulatory overload |
|
|
Term
| What causes infiltrations? |
|
Definition
| When the needle becomes dislodged or penetrates the vein wall and the IV solution flows into the tissues instead of throught the vein |
|
|
Term
| What condition may complicate phlebitis? |
|
Definition
| The formation of a clot along the vein |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Air bubbles or foreign particles (clots) in the vein |
|
|
Term
| What's the normal rate for a KVO IV? |
|
Definition
| Between 10 and 50 cc/hour, with the amount infused at less than 500 cc |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The intravenous administration of whole blood or blood products |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In 225 cc units as pooled, fresh frozen, or single-donor plasma |
|
|
Term
| What is blood mixed with after it's collected from a donor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the first step in the actual transfusion process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once transfusion is initiated, how long should it run slowly? |
|
Definition
| For the first 15 to 30 minutes |
|
|
Term
Which event is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure?
a. Hypervolemia
b. Hypovolemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypokalemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fatigue, weakness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dysrhythmias are signs and symptoms associated with which electrolyte imbalance?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypercalcemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What electrolyte defecit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypernatremia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which imbalance may be caused by starvation and diabetic acidosis?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metbolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most direct approach for administering medication is
a. infusion
b. intradermal
c. intramuscular
d. subcutaneous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The basic purpose for infusion therapy is to
a. increase overall muscle strength
b. administer fluids into the circulatory system
c. increase the body's immunological metabolism
d. administer fluids into the gastrointestinal system |
|
Definition
| b. administer fluids into the circulatory system |
|
|
Term
Intravenous (IV) solution bags normally range in size from
a. 100 to 200 cc
b. 100 to 2,000 cc
c. 500 to 750 cc
d. 500 to 2,000 cc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to prevent the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup?
a. Vent port
b. In-line filter
c. Back-check valve
d. Self-sealing rubber cover |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A scalp-vein needle (commonly used in pediatric patients) is an example of a
a. infusion controlled needle catheter
b. indwelling plastic catheter
c. over-the-needle catheter
d. wing-tipped needle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily. In addition, you should not allow the container to hang longer than... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage of a patient scheduled for long-term therapy, you must change the intravenous (IV) site every
a. 24 hours
b. 24 to 48 hours
c. 24 to 72 hours
d. 48 to 72 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous solution, you would
a. slow the flow rate
b. discontinue the IV immediately
c. replace the tubing and the container
d. send the solution to the laboratory for analysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Phlebitis is
a. an inflammation of a vein
b. an inflammation of an artery
c. the formation of a clot along a vein
d. the obstruction of a pulmonary artery |
|
Definition
| a. an inflammation of a vein |
|
|
Term
The slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution is
a. 1 to 5 cc
b. 5 to 10 cc
c. 10 to 50 cc
d. 50 to 100 cc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You have removed an IV catheter. You should maintaion pressure over the injection site for about
a. 3 to 10 seconds
b. 20 to 30 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's tranfusion on
a. a Standard Form 518
b. a Standard Form 3066
c. an AF Form 2019
d. an AF Form 3066 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of reaction is caused by a transfusion of contaminated blood or blood products?
a. Septic
b. Febrile
c. Allergic
d. Hemolytic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who specifies what diet a patient is to receive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet is used for patients with hypertension or congestive heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet eliminates chemicals, mechanical and thermal irritants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet is used as a transition between full liquid diet and regular diet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet is inadequate in all nutrients and is not given for more than 3 days? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet consists of easily digested foods that melt and foods free from cellulose and spices? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet is used for patients who suffer from excessive weight loss? |
|
Definition
| High-calorie, high-protein regular |
|
|
Term
| What type of diet contains fewer calories than the patient normally metabolizes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet has no restrictions on types of nutrients that patients can eat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of diet is used for patients with kidney or liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used for the desire for or an agreeable attitude toward eating food? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What phyical sensations can cause a loss of appetite? |
|
Definition
Pain
Discomfort
Unpleasant sights
Unpleasant sounds
Unpleasant odors |
|
|
Term
| In what ways does culture affect the way a person eats? |
|
Definition
Types of food
Eating utensils
Methods of preparation |
|
|
Term
| What is the strongest forces that affects a person's appetite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On what form do you identify where the patient will eat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should you help prepare a patient for mealtime? |
|
Definition
Assist patient with oral hygiene
Assist patient to bathroom or with bedpan
Provide equiptment to wash hands
Staighten linen
Raise head of bed to sitting position |
|
|
Term
| When do you serve patients who require the most assistance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What method is used to explain the location of foods to a blind patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are five reasons for the use of an NG tube? |
|
Definition
1. Diagnose a disorder
2. Feed a patient
3. Relieve distension
4. Drain the stomach
5. Wash out the stomach |
|
|
Term
| In what position do you place the patient for an NG insertion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the steps used to determine the length of tube needed to reach the stomach? |
|
Definition
| Place the end of the tube at the tip of the nose, extend it to the patient's earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process |
|
|
Term
| How do you prevent entrance of the NG tube into the trachea? |
|
Definition
| With the NG tube at the level of the nasopharynx, have the patient flex their head to their chest and begin to swallow as you pass the tube |
|
|
Term
| During placement of the NG tube, what patient reactions will indicate the need for you to stop and remove the tube? |
|
Definition
Gasping for air
Coughing
Turning cyonotic |
|
|
Term
| What are the four methods used for assuring proper NG tube placement? |
|
Definition
1. Aspiration of stomach contents
2. Osculating for air sounds with injection of 5 to 15 mL of air into the stomach
3. Assuring patient can speak
4. An X-ray to ensure proper placement |
|
|
Term
| What term is used to denote tube feedings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prior to feeding a patient via an NG tube, what's your first priority? |
|
Definition
| Ensuring proper placement of the NG tube |
|
|
Term
| At what temperature should the tube feeding solution be when you use it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many minutes will it take to properly administer a tube feeding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Introduction of a solution into the stomach through a tube and then siphoning the solution back out |
|
|
Term
| Why are irrigations performed? |
|
Definition
| To improve or ensure patency of the NG tube |
|
|
Term
| What are three reasons a catheterization is performed? |
|
Definition
1. Relieve or prevent bladder distension
2. Collect a sterile urine specimen
3. Empty the bladder before certain surgical procedures |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of catheter you'll deal with? |
|
Definition
| Straight and Foley (double-lumen) |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to decompress the bladder slowly? |
|
Definition
| To prevent bladder damage, shock, chills, and fever |
|
|
Term
| What type of technique is used when inserting a catheter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for a female patient? |
|
Definition
| Two to three inches or until urine begins to flow |
|
|
Term
| How far into the urethra is the straight catheter inserted for a male patient? |
|
Definition
| 6 to 10 inches or until urine begins to flow |
|
|
Term
| How far into the urethra is the indwelling catheter inserted for a male patient? |
|
Definition
| To the catheter bifurcation |
|
|
Term
| Why do you pinch the catheter tube prior to removing it? |
|
Definition
| To prevent air from entering the bladder |
|
|
Term
| To prevent damage to the urethra, what must you remember to do when removing an indwelling catheter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of bladder irrigations? |
|
Definition
| To remove or wash out blood, pus, bacteria, or waste products following urinary surgery |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of enemas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three reasons for the use of cleansing enemas? |
|
Definition
1. Relieve constipation
2. Preparation for surgery
3. Preparation for diagnostic procedures |
|
|
Term
| In what position is the patient placed when administering an enema? |
|
Definition
| Left lateral recumbant or on his or her back |
|
|
Term
| When giving a cleansing enema, how many minutes should the solution be retained? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When giving a retention enema, how high should the solution container be held above the rectum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are retention enemas used for? |
|
Definition
Treat disease of the rectum and lower colon
Soften fecal material or soothe an irritated colon or rectum
Administer medication |
|
|
Term
| What are two reasons for colostomy irrigations? |
|
Definition
1. Establishing fecal control
2. Keeping the patient clean |
|
|
Term
| What's the most common reason for receiving a colostomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given more than 3 days is the
a. soft diet
b. full liquid
c. clear liquid
d. mineral-restricted |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing procedures that use the patient's NG tube? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which procedure is performed to cleanse the stomach of harmful substances?
a. Gavage
b. Lavage
c. Irrigation
d. Suctioning |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
a. 550 to 800 cc
b. 650 to 900 cc
c. 750 to 1000 cc
d. 850 to 1100 cc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When administering an enema, the patient is preferably positioned
a. on the right side
b. on the left side
c. supine
d. prone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The patient should retain the solution of a cleansing enema for a time period of
a. 2 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 8 minutes
d. 10 minutes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is
a. one-third full
b. one-half full
c. three-fourths full
d. full |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of colostomy irrigation is to
a. establish fecal control
b. prevent the possibility of odors
c. keep the bowel empty as much as possible
d. prevent the patient from having to wear an ostomy appliance |
|
Definition
| a. establish fecal control |
|
|
Term
| What is normal partial pressure of arterial oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is normal partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is normal percentage of hydrogen ions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is normal arterial oxygen saturation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term means the patient has a low oxygen content in the arterial blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypoventilation can cause what type of acid-base imnalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperventilation can cause what type of acid-base imbalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do you listen to lung sounds when you're providing respiratory care? |
|
Definition
| Before and after respiratory treatment |
|
|
Term
| Which lung sound is characterized by course, gurgling sounds heard best on expiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lung sound is characterized by a whistling sound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lung sound is characterized by fine crackling sounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lung sound is characterized by noisy breathing caused by an obstructed airway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should "No Smoking" be posted outside rooms where oxygen is in use? |
|
Definition
| Because oxygen supports combusion and makes everything more flammable |
|
|
Term
| What type of clanket must be used in areas where oxygen is in use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions should you take if you're using a metal oxygen tank? |
|
Definition
Ensure fill date doesn't exceed 5 years
Ensure the tank is secured to keep it from falling over |
|
|
Term
| What's the function of airways? |
|
Definition
| To prevent obstruction of the upper airway and allow passage of air and oxygen into the lungs |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if an oropharyngeal airway is used on a conscious or semi-conscious patient? |
|
Definition
| May cause vomitting or spasms of the vocal chords |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine the method of oxygen administration the physician will select? |
|
Definition
Patient's condition
The immediate situation
Available equiptment
Whether patient can tolerate the specific type of equiptment necessary for its administration |
|
|
Term
| For what type of patient is an oxygen tent used? |
|
Definition
| Patients who are very sick, restless, or uncooperative |
|
|
Term
| How is the concentration of oxygen monitered with the oxygen tent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of mask is used to administer inspired oxygen concentrations of 60 to 90 percent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of mask is used when the patient needs low concentrations of oxygen, 24 to 40 percent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is a continuous positive airway pressure mask used? |
|
Definition
| When other attempts to increase the patient's PaO2 have failed, but prior to intubation |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of the pocket mask? |
|
Definition
To supply supplemental oxygen during mouth-to-mouth ventilation
Reduces the possibility of contamination of the health care provider |
|
|
Term
| How is the pocket mask placed on the patient's face? |
|
Definition
Apex of mask over the bridge of the patient's nose and the base in the groove between the lower lip and the chin
Grasp the patient's mandible with the first three fingers of each hand and your thumbs over the dome of the mask |
|
|
Term
| What concentration of oxygen can be delivered with the bag-valve-mask system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often should you ventilate the patient when you're using the bag-valve-mask system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What triggers the flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device? |
|
Definition
| Patient inspiration or external controls |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if the humidifier is too full when you're using a nasal cannula? |
|
Definition
| The bubbling water may overflow into the gauges |
|
|
Term
| How often are oxygen humidifiers changed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should suctioning be limited to 15 seconds? |
|
Definition
| May induce hypoxia or repiratory problems |
|
|
Term
| Who is normally responsible for inserting endotracheal tubes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid or air from the pleural space is
a. Closed chest drainage
b. Postural drainage
c. Breathing exercise
d. Thoracentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A drainage system used to reexpand a collapsed or partially collapsed lung is
a. Closed chest drainage
b. Postural drainage
c. Breathing exercise
d. Thoracentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which procedure maintains and cleanses the airway, improves vital capacity, and helps prevent stelactasis and post-op pneumonia?
a. Closed chest drainage
b. Postural drainage
c. Breathing exercise
d. Thoracentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which procedure helps to remove excess secretions by gravity?
a. Closed chest drainage
b. Postural drainage
c. Breathing exercise
d. Thoracentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which procedure may be done to confirm the diagnosis of fluid in the pleural space, to obtain a culture, or to relieve respiratory symptoms?
a. Closed chest drainage
b. Postural drainage
c. Breathing exercise
d. Thoracentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients may become dizzy the first few times chest percussions are done in this position.
a. Closed chest drainage
b. Postural drainage
c. Breathing exercise
d. Thoracentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The patient may be sitting on the side of the bed or lying in a lateral, recumbant position for which procedure?
a. Closed chest drainage
b. Postural drainage
c. Breathing exercise
d. Thoracentesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a tracheostomy usually performed? |
|
Definition
| As an emergency measure when there's an obstruction of the upper air passages |
|
|
Term
| Why do you suction a tracheostomy prior to changing the dressing? |
|
Definition
| To help maintain a clean area longer |
|
|
Term
| How often should tracheostomy care be performed? |
|
Definition
| Every 8 hours or as often as the physician orders it |
|
|
Term
| Define exertional dyspnea. |
|
Definition
| Difficulty breathing on exertion, which is relieved by rest |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Unusual or irregular heart beats felt by the patient |
|
|
Term
| What's one cause of cardiogenic syncope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the cause of cyanosis? |
|
Definition
| A reduced amount of hemoglobin in the blood |
|
|
Term
| What can cause diminished pulses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the best anatomical location to hear heart sounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During asculation of heart sounds, what does the S1 sound represent? |
|
Definition
| Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of taking an apical-radial pulse? |
|
Definition
| To compare the pulse rate at the apex of the heart with that of the radial artery |
|
|
Term
| Why do you need two people to take an apical-radial pulse? |
|
Definition
| One takes the apical pulse, the other takes the radial pulse |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of defibrillation? |
|
Definition
| To terminate ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachcardia |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful? |
|
Definition
| Continue CPR until the physician decides whether or not to defibrillate again |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Electronic monitoring of the heart rythm over airwaves |
|
|
Term
| What's the normal arterial mean pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What prevents blood from backing up into the tubing of an arterial line? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of information can a CVP provide to a physician? |
|
Definition
| Venous blood volume, assessment of right sided heart failure, and determination of heart infarctions |
|
|
Term
| Name four possible insertion siites for a CVP line. |
|
Definition
| Brachial, femoral, subclavian, or jugular veins |
|
|
Term
| Why is the patient taught to perform the "Valsalva maneuver" prior to insertion of a CVP line? |
|
Definition
| To decrease the chance of air embolism |
|
|
Term
| What's the normal CVP range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the normal range for the PCWP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PCWPs greater than 20 mm Hg are associated with what illnesses? |
|
Definition
Left ventricular failure
Pulmonary congestion
Hypervolemia |
|
|
Term
The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is
a. 85 to 88%
b. 89 to 91%
c. 92 to 95%
d. 95 to 98% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lung sound (heard upon inspiration or expiration) is a whistling sound caused by narrow airways? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For patients using a nonrebreather mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
a. 30 to 40%
b. 40 to 50%
c. 60 to 90%
d. 80 to 100% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
a. Simple
b. Venturi
c. Nonrebreathing
d. Flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For patients under 12 years of age, you would avoid using a
a. ventui mask
b. nasal cannula
c. nonrebreather mask
d. flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device |
|
Definition
| d. flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device |
|
|
Term
To prevent hypoxia, suctioning should be restricted to
a. 15 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 45 seconds
d. 60 seconds |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to
a. deflate the chest cavity
b. deflate a collapsed lung
c. reexpand a collapsed lung
d. reexpand the chest cavity |
|
Definition
| c. reexpand a collapsed lung |
|
|
Term
A patient describes a jumping, punding, or stopping of the heart within the chest. This condition is called heart
a. flutter
b. syncope
c. palpitation
d. fibrillation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia?
a. Syncope
b. Fatigue
c. Dyspnea
d. Palpitations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To initiate defibrillation procedures due to ventricular fibrillation, you would first set the defibrillator at
a. 100 to 200 joules
b. 200 to 300 joules
c. 300 to 400 joules
d. 400 to 500 joules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Prior to insertion of a central venous pressure line to decrease the chance of air embolism, the patient is taught the
a. Vagal maneuver
b. Allen maneuver
c. Webber maneuver
d. Valsalva maneuver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the six common causes of immobility? |
|
Definition
1. Pain
2. Neuroligical damage
3. structural defects
4. Weakness
5. Psychological problems
6. Rehabilitation measures |
|
|
Term
| What type of special nursing challenge do patients in pain present? |
|
Definition
| They must be convinced the activity is going to help, and motivated to do the activity |
|
|
Term
| Why should you schedule activities for a patient at a time when the patient is feeling energetic? |
|
Definition
| Fatigue lowers pain tolerance |
|
|
Term
| Usually, what type of patient is not able to communicate effectively? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two causes of weakness? |
|
Definition
| Inactivity or degenerative processes like cancer |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of bed rest? |
|
Definition
| Allows injured tissues to heal |
|
|
Term
| How do patients who are on bed rest differ from other immobilized patients? |
|
Definition
| Many don't want to be on bed rest and will resist limitations |
|
|
Term
| What are three reasons immobilized patients might be frightened? |
|
Definition
In a strange environment
They don't know what's going to happen
They can't do anything to protect or help themselves |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if a patient begins to experience pain or fatigue during exercise? |
|
Definition
| Stop the exercise and notify the doctor or nurse |
|
|
Term
| What psychological condition is exhibited when a patient spends a great deal of time worrying about meals and bowel movements? |
|
Definition
| Regression and child-like behavior |
|
|
Term
| What's the primary cause of decubitus ulcers? |
|
Definition
| Impaired circulation to the skin and subcutaneous tissue in areas of the body where the bony prominences lie close to the skin surface |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of a grade III ulcer? |
|
Definition
| Penetration down to the muscle causing distortion of muscle tissue and loss of body fluids |
|
|
Term
| What treatments can be used for decubitus ulcers? |
|
Definition
| Topical agents, surgery, heat lamps, and various other remedies |
|
|
Term
| What does muscle tone do? |
|
Definition
| Holds the body erect when you are standing, sitting, walking, or balancing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A combination of poor posture, lack of support, and stretched muscles |
|
|
Term
| What's the final effect of disuse osteoporosis on bones? |
|
Definition
| Bones become brittle and susceptible to damage |
|
|
Term
| What's the best treatment for muscoskeletal problems related to immobility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does immobility have on the flow of blood through the body? |
|
Definition
| The flow is slower because there's no muscle activity helping to push the blood through the body |
|
|
Term
| What causes orthostatic hypotension? |
|
Definition
| Inadequate vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| What affect does immobility have on the respiratory system? |
|
Definition
Loss or respiratory muscle tone
Inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
Disruption of the acid-base balance
Hypostatic pneumonia
Atelectasis |
|
|
Term
| What are two reasons an immobilized patient's metabolic rate might increase instead of decrease? |
|
Definition
| The patient may have a fever or be in pain |
|
|
Term
| What possible consequences of using poor body mechanics were discussed in the text? |
|
Definition
| Backaches, muscle strain, and other permanent problems |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The proper relationship of body parts to one another |
|
|
Term
| How does contracting your abdominal and buttocks muscles help protect your back? |
|
Definition
| Helps hold your back straight by supporting the abdominal organs and reducing strain on the lower back |
|
|
Term
| For proper posture, what's the position of your head? |
|
Definition
| Your head should be erect, not leaning in any particular direction |
|
|
Term
| What are two ways you can impede the circulation to your lower legs when you are sitting? |
|
Definition
| Crossing your legs or sitting so the back of the chair is pressing against your popliteal area |
|
|
Term
| What three factors should you consider when you're planning a task? |
|
Definition
1. How you'll do the task
2. What equiptment you'll need
3. How much help you'll need |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if you don't accept and work within your own physical limitations? |
|
Definition
| You could either injure yourself, a patient, or both |
|
|
Term
| What's the relationship between your stability and your center of gravity? |
|
Definition
| Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your base of support |
|
|
Term
| Why is it easier to lift a patient with a smooth, steady motion than it is with a series of jerky motions? |
|
Definition
| When using jerky motions you tend to lose your momentum and need more energy to start moving again |
|
|
Term
| Describe how you can use leverage to help move a patient to the side of the bed. |
|
Definition
| Using your body weight to help pull the patient towards you |
|
|
Term
| In what parts of your body are your largest muscles located? |
|
Definition
| Shoulders, upper arms, thighs, and hips |
|
|
Term
| Why should you use pulling or pushing movements rather than lifting movements? |
|
Definition
| The resistance is less than the force of gravity |
|
|
Term
| At what point do you become involved in moving patients? |
|
Definition
| Whenever the patient can't move himself or herself |
|
|
Term
| What four steps should preface any movement procedure? |
|
Definition
1. Hand washing
2. Greeting the patient
3. Checking the patient's ID
4. Explaining the procedure |
|
|
Term
| How do you perpare the bed for moving a patient? |
|
Definition
| Raise it to a working level, lock the wheels, lower the head of the bed, and place the pillow against the headboard |
|
|
Term
| How can the patient help with the one-person technique? |
|
Definition
| By pulling with the arms and pushing with the feet |
|
|
Term
| What two types of patient should be moved with the two-person technique? |
|
Definition
| Patients too heavy for one person to handle safely and patients who are incapable of helping with the move |
|
|
Term
| Where do you place the patient's arms when you're using the two-person technique? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of patients can't be moved by the shoulder-lift technique? |
|
Definition
| Patients who have back, shoulder, or chest injuries |
|
|
Term
| Which two-person technique adds an element of speed to the move? |
|
Definition
| The modified shoulder drag technique |
|
|
Term
| Where do the technicians grasp the drawsheet if there are only two people trying to move the patient? |
|
Definition
| At the hip and neck level |
|
|
Term
| At a minimum, how frequently should immobilized patients be turned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two reasons you should provide privacy when moving a patient? |
|
Definition
1. Most patients don't want others to see them being dragged around in bed
2. Patient can be accidentally exposed |
|
|
Term
| What's the last step before leaving a patient you moved? |
|
Definition
| Make sure the patient is comfortable and his/her body is aligned properly |
|
|
Term
| Why should you bend the patient's legs before turning him/her to the side-lying position? |
|
Definition
| To shift the patient's weight and to prevent him or her from rolling back to the original position |
|
|
Term
| How should you place your feet when you're preparing to turn a patient to his or her side? |
|
Definition
| About 12 to 15 inches apart with one foot slightly behind the other |
|
|
Term
| How should you place your feet when you're preparing to turn a patient to his or her side? |
|
Definition
| About 12 to 15 inches apart with one foot slightly behind the other |
|
|
Term
| Why is is best to pull rather than push a patient into a different position? |
|
Definition
| When you push, you lose some control and risk the possibility of accidentally pushing the patient out of bed |
|
|
Term
| What are the reasons patients are moved to the edge of the bed? |
|
Definition
Repositioning
Perform various procedures
In preparation for getting out of bed |
|
|
Term
| What's the best position for the person who is controling a move? |
|
Definition
| At the head of the patient so he or she can see the patient and what other technicians are doing |
|
|
Term
| How do you move a patient to the edge of the bed if you are working alone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do safety precausions and principles of body mechanics apply more to transfer techniques than they do to simple patient movements? |
|
Definition
| There's more lifting and moving involved as well as a greater chance of injury to the patient and technician |
|
|
Term
| What types of patients are transported on stretchers? |
|
Definition
Helpless and near-helpless patients
preoperative and postoperative patients
Others who must remain in a lying position |
|
|
Term
| Why are bed to stretcher transfers har on technicians? |
|
Definition
| More lifting and reaching involved |
|
|
Term
| How do you prepare a stretcher for a patient? |
|
Definition
| Cover with a clean dry sheet, tuck in around the edges to eliminate wrinkles, have another pillow, sheet and blanket available, have equiptment attachments in place |
|
|
Term
| Where should the stretcher be positioned if the patient is to be transferred by lifting? |
|
Definition
| At a 90 degree angle to the foot of the bed |
|
|
Term
| What technique is the best for repositioning a patient in the bed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should the technicians position themselves to slide the patient to a stretcher? |
|
Definition
| On the far side of the litter from the patient |
|
|
Term
| What's the preferred method for moving a patient from a bed to a stretcher? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you place a stretcher patient onto an elevator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should the patient's legs not be allowed to hand unsupported from the edge of the bed? |
|
Definition
| The edge of the bed will put pressure on the backs of the patient's legs and interfere with circulation |
|
|
Term
| What position should you take when you're preparing to turn a patient to the dangling position? |
|
Definition
| Beside the patient with one arm behind the patient's shoulders and the other arm beneath the patient's legs |
|
|
Term
| What two procedures are preliminary steps for bothtransferring a patient to a chair and ambulating a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What criteria should you use when selecting a transfer technique? |
|
Definition
| The technique you are most comfortable with, allows you to control the patient's movements and still permits you to use good body mechanics |
|
|
Term
| Why should you allow the patient to stand for a few moments before being transferred to a bedside chair? |
|
Definition
| The patient may be a little unsteady when first standing up |
|
|
Term
| What additional advantage do you obtain by bracing your feet against the patient's feet when helping the patient to a standing position? |
|
Definition
| Prevents the patient's feet from sliding out from under him or her |
|
|
Term
| What type of shoes should a patient wear when being transferred to a chair? |
|
Definition
| Well-fitting, hard-soled shoes |
|
|
Term
| What are two precautions you should take before moving a patient to a wheelchair? |
|
Definition
Wheels locked
Footrests out of the way |
|
|
Term
| How should you position yourself if you're moving a near-helpless patient by yourself? |
|
Definition
| Behind the patient with my arms under the patient's arms and my hands, grasping the patient's forearms |
|
|
Term
| Why are both the one-person and two-person techniques unsatisfactory for moving a near-helpless patient from a bed to a chair? |
|
Definition
| Because it puts too much strain on the first technician's back |
|
|
Term
| When should you back up with a patient in a wheelchair? |
|
Definition
| When going through a doorway or entering an elevator |
|
|
Term
| What are two purposes of mechanical aids? |
|
Definition
| To provide a smooth transfer and to reduce the possibility of injury to the patient and to the technician |
|
|
Term
| Why should some of the technicians kneel on the bed when moving a patient with a drawsheet? |
|
Definition
| To avoid excessive reaching |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe the construction of a hydraulic hoist. |
|
Definition
| A canvas sling supported by a metal frame on wheels. The frame has several pivot points that can be adjusted by a hydraulic cylinder |
|
|
Term
| Why can't patients who have been bedridden for a long time just get up and walk? |
|
Definition
| Their muscles have atrophied and weakened, and they're usually unsteady |
|
|
Term
| What can you do to reduce patient problems with ambulation? |
|
Definition
| Help bedridden patients remain as active as possible and move the patient out of bed in gradual stages |
|
|
Term
| What can you use as a substitute if you don't have a commercial transfer belt? |
|
Definition
| A litter strap or even the patient's own belt |
|
|
Term
| What's the preferred position for a technician who is ambulating a patient? |
|
Definition
| Beside and a little behind the patient, with one hand on the patient's waist and the other hand supporting the patient's near arm |
|
|
Term
| What objects should the patient avoid using for support? |
|
Definition
| Light, unstable objects and objects on wheels |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine the type of ambulation aid that will be used for each patient? |
|
Definition
| Patient's physical condition and preferences, and the doctor's recommendation |
|
|
Term
| What type of crutch is most commonly used for short-term patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the procedure for measuring crutch length on a standing patient? |
|
Definition
| Patient stands up straight and measure from a point 6-8 inches out from the side of the patient's foot to 2-3 fingersbreadth below the patient's axillary fold |
|
|
Term
| Describe the four-point gait used by patients using crutches. |
|
Definition
| Supports move one at a time: Right crutch, left foot, left crutch, right foot |
|
|
Term
| What basic rule should a crutch patient follow when going up stairs? |
|
Definition
| Body first, then crutches |
|
|
Term
| How do platform crutches differ from canadian crutches? |
|
Definition
| Canadian crutches require support on hands, platform crutches bear weight on forearms requiring very little hand strength |
|
|
Term
| What type of patients should receive passive exercise? |
|
Definition
| Patients who are unable or not allowed to do active exercises |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Movement toward the center of the body |
|
|
Term
| How do ROM exercises help prevent joint fixation? |
|
Definition
| They prevent shortening of the muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules that lead to joint fixation |
|
|
Term
| What information will help you decide what type of exercises a patient will need? |
|
Definition
| Doctor's orders and the patient's diagnosis and capabilities |
|
|
Term
| How should you support a body part when you're doing passive exercises? |
|
Definition
| Cradle or cup the body part and support it above and below the involved joint |
|
|
Term
| What are the three different types of active exercises? |
|
Definition
1. Active ROM exercises
2. Isometric Exercises
3. Bed exercises |
|
|
Term
| Why should you instruct patients not to hold their breath as they do isometric exercises? |
|
Definition
| Straining causes irregular heat beats that may cause a heart attack |
|
|
Term
| How do patients benefit from pull-up and push-up exercises? |
|
Definition
| Increased upper body strength |
|
|
Term
The best time to schedule patient activities is
a. before lunch
b. in the mid morning
c. when the patient is pain free
d. when the patient is energetic |
|
Definition
| d. when the patient is energetic |
|
|
Term
You are planning activities for a patient with psychological problems. In this situation, your primary goal would be to
a. motivate the patient
b. reassure the patient
c. show sincere concern
d. develop a good rapport |
|
Definition
| d. develop a good rapport |
|
|
Term
| What should you do to help a patient become less angry and hostile? |
|
Definition
| Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression |
|
|
Term
What grad of decubitus ulcer has penetrated down to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids?
a. Grade I
b. Grade II
c. Grade III
d. Grade IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 4 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? |
|
Definition
| Prevent back, hip, and leg strain |
|
|
Term
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your
a. axis
b. head
c. internal girdle
d. base of support |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To use the internal girdle of support, you must
a. simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles
b. simultaneously contract abdominal and shoulder muscles
c. contract buttocks muscles and relax abdominal muscles |
|
Definition
| a. simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles |
|
|
Term
Which factors determine the technique you will use to move a patient up in bed?
a. Size and capabilities of the patient
b. Size and capabilities of the technician
c. Size of the patient & capabilities of the technician |
|
Definition
| a. Size and capabilities of the patient |
|
|
Term
Which technique for moving the patient up in bed is contraindicated for a patient wh ohas back or chest injuries?
a. One-person
b. Two-person
c. Shoulder-lift
d. Two-person with a drawsheet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by
a. locking beds and wheelchairs before the transfer
b. using good teamwork and proper body mechanics |
|
Definition
| b. using good teamwork and proper body mechanics |
|
|
Term
The person in charge of a bed to a stretcher transfer should be positioned
a. near the patient's shoulder furthest from the stretcher
b. at the bottom of the bed on the stretcher side
c. at the head of the bed on the stretcher side |
|
Definition
| c. at the head of the bed on the stretcher side |
|
|
Term
A patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent
a. the patient from falling out of bed
b. pressure on the back of the legs
c. thrombophlebitis
d. venous stasis |
|
Definition
| b. pressure on the back of the legs |
|
|
Term
Which devices can be used to slide a patient from a bed to a stretcher?
a. Drawsheet and ttrapeze
b. Drawsheet and roller board
c. Drawsheet and patient hoist
d. Roller board and patient hoist |
|
Definition
| b. Drawsheet and rollerboard |
|
|
Term
The crutch most commonly used for fractures and other short-term disabilities is the
a. axillary
b. Canadian
c. platform
d. elbow extensor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?
a. Two-point
b. Three-point
c. Four-point
d. Swing-through |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of exercise would you provide for a patient who is unable or not allowed to exercise?
a. Active
b. Passive
c. Isotonic
d. isometric |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle
a. contraction with body movement
b. relaxation with body movement
c. contraction without body movement
d. relaxation without any body movement |
|
Definition
| c. contraction without any body movement |
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