Military and Civilian phycisions, dentitist, CNM

Which healthcare providers found in AF Medical facilities are authorized to both treat and admit pts

the physician or physician's designated representative

Who is responsible for notifying the inpatient unit that a routine pt is being admitted

what does the  the provider do to help a patient relax and sleep prior to the nightb efore the surgery?

what can you, the medical technician, do to comfort a pt concerned about their surgery?

be friendly, caring, professional, and be a good listener for the pt

why is a chest xray taken prior to surgery?

CBC and urinalysis

what labs are frequently completed the day before surgery?

it gives the surgeon information about the blood and function of the kidneys

what is the purpose of a pre-op urinalysis

shower or bathe using the antiseptic soap such as proxidone-iodine (betadine) to reduce # of microorganisms in the skin

what pre-operative action do most pts perform the evening before the surgery

cleaning/disinfecting and hair removal

What is involved in preparign the skin for surgery

look for adverse reactions or complicatuibs from surgery

what is the goal of care provided during the immediate post operative period?

pale cold cool clammy skin

what are signs of shock

a&o x3

ask pt his/her name, date, location

how do you determine the pt's LOC

pupils equal, round, reactive to light, accomodation

what does PERRLA stand for

bed side rails must be up and remain up

what action must be taken once a premed is given

the chance fior bacterial growth near the operative site increases danger

what may  happen if the skin is scratched ot nicked near the surgical site prior to surgery

an anticoagulant

what is whole blood mixed with after it is collected from a donor?

the iv administration of whole blood or blood products

what is a transfusion

in 225cc units as pooled, fresh frozen, or single donor plasma

how is plasma supplied

compatibility testing

what is the first step to the actual transfusion process

1st 15 to 30 mins

once a tranfusions is initiated, how long should it run slowly

a form of extreme irrational behavior exhibitred by a pt emerging from a general anesthesia characterized by screaming, shouting, and violent thrashing as if in rage

what is emergence delirium

hypoxemia, drugs, pts who are afraid of cancer, disfigurement ir are clostrophobic

what factors or causes that can contribute to emergence delibrium

check airway and administer O2, change pt position, children calmed when held by their parents

list at least 4 actions nursing personnel can take when a pt exhibits signs of emergence

rough handling of the pt during transportation and frequent changing in position

what are 2 main causes of nausea and vomiting in the surgical pt

place a cool, wet  washcloth or hand towel on the pts forehead and offer reassurance

what is one of the easiest most effective treatments for a pt experiencing nausea?

1. turn the pt head and offer reassurance

2. lower head of bed

3. suction

4. give O2

5. Ausculate to pt breathe sounds

list 5 things u do when pt vomits during surgery

rap9id cooling of the body both internally and externally

what is the main treatment for excessive high body temps?

blood pressure falls, <3 rate increases, seizures, fluffy lookin xtray

briefly describe the effects of severe dehydration can have on the body?

massive infusion of iv fluids, and clost monitoring of electrolytes

what is the basic treatment for esevere dehydration

posutrem tongue and mucous secretions

what are the 3 main causes of airway pbstruction after surgery

until the pt reacts and regains sufficient refelxes responses to spit or pull the airway out

how long is an oral airways left in the pts mouth following surgery?

14, 16, 18 FR

what size catheters are normally used on adult pts?

to ensure that the suction device is working properly and is mainteed lubricated

whyd o you aspirate a small amount of saline into a suction cathe ter before and between uses?

obtain the pt v/s height and weight

which statement would be the respinsibility if the mdical technician during a routine pt admission to a nursing unit?

a. evaluate pt

b. obtain pt history

c. transcribe dr's orders

d.  obtain the pt v/s weight and weight

pt condition and the facility policy

what considerations determine the steps in a routing admission process?

pt condition and the cost of admission per day

facility policy and the pts distance from home

pt condition and the facility policy

facility policy and pt request

inform the nurse that the pt is at risk for falling

while admiting a pt, you notice that the pt seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do?

call the dr and order restraints

inform the nurse that the pt is at risk for falling

look at the ot medication. it could be a side affect

put restraints on the pt until the physician can be notified

b. both cief nurses

how authorizes tranfer of pt care for an interservice transfer?

a chief nurse

b. both cief nurses

recieving physician

Chief of Hospital Services

designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards them by registered mail.

during the transfer of a psychiatric pt requring sedation, how atre the pt vakuable safe gaurded?

a/ pass

which stateemnt allows pt to depart from the medical facility for a short operiod of time, usually between 24-48 hrs?

a/ pass

b/ discharge

c. subsisting elswhere

d. abscent w/o leave

d. 24 hrs

verbal orders must be countersigned by the physiscian w/n

a. 4 hrs

b.8 hrs

c. 12 hrs

d. 24 hrs

circle the last accumulated total

what is the proper method of annottaing shift change totals on the DD form 792, intake and output worksheet

a. no documentation is required at shift change

b. documents all totals in the remarks section

c. document in the grand total block

d. cirlcle the last accumulated amount.

v/s were not complete

if an inpatient chart with dr order;s orders for cital signs every 4 hrs were blank for the day you would assume

a.pt was likle off the unit having test completed

b. pt is doing well and no problems were noted

c. dr proably changed the orders verbally

d. v/s wer enot complete

planning

which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnosis?

a.planning

b.assessing

c.evaluatin

d.implementing

a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in pt behavior

relative to nursing process, what is the client goal

a.an observable change in pt behavior

b. a measurable change in pt condition

c. a realistic and measurable statement oif the end result of care planning

d. a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in pr behavior

nursing interventions

which actions are performed to help the pt reach his or her goals most effectively?

a. nursing inventions

b.nursing diagnosis

c. nursing skills

d.charting

professionalism and a caring attitude

what has a significant uimpact on the pt's percieved quality of care treatment?

a.sedations

b. back massage

c. oxygen therapy

d. preoperative teaching

the surgery pt is given a preoperative medication to

a. reduce recovery time

b.dry mucous membranes

c.produce and unconscious state

d. prevent aspiration during surgery/.

SF 518

What form dl you document blood transfusion

platelets

What component of blood is involved in the blood clotting process

30 mins

what is the guideluine for the maximum minutes of time frin pick up to transfusion start of blood products?

a.20

b.30

c.60

d.90

stop the transfusion

if a patient you are monitoring is recieving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. what should you do first?

a.continue to monitor, this is a normal side affect

b. place the pt on his/her left side

c. administer 100% oxygen

d. stop the transfusion

emergence delirium

a post operative pt who is agitated, thrashing violently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing?

a.extreme pain

b. hyperthermia

c. emergence delirium

d.electrolyte imbalances

idealyl, in what position is a pt placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

a. modified lateral

b.trendelenburg

c.semi sitting

d.supine

congenital problems, infectious diseas, and trauma

list 3 factor that can result in an orthopaedic problem

pathological

what is a fracture that results from a disease called

Pain Swollen discoloration

List 3 symptoms of a fracture

it keeps the muscle tones and prevents contractures and deformities

why exercise important to the patient with arthritis

66lbs

what is the weight limit for a pt baggage during aero medical evaluation

joint strain

what condition is indicated if a pt complains of a pain that increases with activity?

DDFORM 792

input and output form

afi 41-210

what af instruction provides alist of form to be assembled after the discharge of a pt?

time and mode of onset, sensory disturbance

what information should you obtain regarding deformities?

noise heard when bones are moved

what does the term crepitus mean?

adequate transporation and splinting to prevent for further damage to soft tissue and bone fragments

what is the 1st level of care provided for injuries of the joint?

extent of the injury, location of the fracture, the age of the pt, size of bone, and circulation to area

what 5 factors determine the legnth of time required fot a fracture to heal?

setting the bone

define the term reduction

a surgical procedure to set, align, stabilize a fracture

define open reduction

24-48 hours

how much time is required for complete drying of a cast

circulatory impairment and pressure on body tissues especially over bony parts

what do yoiu look for when you are inspectin gextremeties that have been casted?

 one in a cast or traction

what type of orthopedic pt requires special skin care?

a skin traction applied to the leg as temporary treatment for fractures of the upper portion of the shaft of the femur

bucks's extension

skin traction for treating some fractures of the shaft and neck of the femur

russell traction

skin traction used for fractures of the shaft of the humerus

arm traction

traction for cervical spine disorders

head halter traction

to attach various pulley's for traction deviced and a trapeze bar to assist pts in helping themselves as mush as possible

what is the purpose of a Balkan frame?

splints

Most often used to support and immobilize extremeties

artificial limbs

used after the amputation of an extremeity

orthopaedic beds

these include the stryker frames and the circolectric

crutches

serve as legs for an indefinite period of time?

prevention of hemmorrage

what are immediate post operative gials for the amputee 

trauma, spinal cord tumors, diease, infections, congenital defects

list 5 causes of paralysis?

monitor respirations, cardiac, and gi functions

what bofy functioning must be monitored carefully for the 1st 48 hrs after a spinal cord injury?

to prevent pressure sores cardio respiratory complications, muscle athropy, and urinary complications

why are pts who have been placed in skeleteal traction to immobilize the spince placed on a spacial bed such as a stryker frame?

schemia or hemmorhage of the brain

what are 2 physiological causes of a stroke?

sustain life

what is the primary goal during the acute stage of a stroke?

LOC

Pupil, hand grip stregnth and fou streghtn

what neurological checks need to be done frequently on a stroke pt

seperation, loss of control, fear of bodily injury and pain

list 4 stressors that influence the way children cope with hospitalization

protest, despair, detachment

name 3 phases of seperation anxiety

rooming-in with parents

what ideal situation helps a child cope with seperation anxiety?

physical restriction, altered routines or dependency

what can casue a child to feel a sense of "loss of control"

open mouth, eyes closed tightly, flaring nostrils, loud crying

what are 4 signs that indicate that an infant may be experiencing pain?

toddlers and preschoolers

which age group woll most likely act very emotionally to pain?

respirations/breeathing. b/c taking the pulse of blood pressure may cause them to cry alterting their breathing

which if the vital signs are taken 1st with a pediatric patient? why

ausculated over the apex of the heart for one full minute

how is pulse taken on children less 2 y/o

axillary method

which method of temperature assessment is easiet for children

an appropriate size cuff

what important factor of blood pressure assessment is essential for obtaining accurate results

lack or proper exercise

reduced muscle tone

less rough age and fluids in the diet

what are 3 reasons an elderly pt might have difficulty with regular bowel eliminations?

spiritual, physical, cultural, physiology, economical

5 needs of the terminallly ill patient

A complex emotional state of tension or uneasiness, the cause of which is unrecognized

anxiety

conflict

a state of indecision that arises when an individual is confronted by alternatives of action or by contradictory ideas or ideals

hallucinations

a false sensory perception occuring w/o external stimulus

mania

a state identified by feelings of elation and well being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity

neurotic

pertaining to or affected with a neurosis

phobia

a fixed morbid fear of an object or a situation

psychotic

pertaining to or caused by psychosis

schizophrenia

a psychotic disorder characterized by disorientation and disorganized patterns of thinking

set limits and enforce them

how should you react to a patient who becomes verbally and physically abusive

appearance, behavior, conversation

what are the ABCs of observing and reporting the pt condition

nudity, disrobing, genital exposure,observations of the child in a state of undress, imitate kissing of a child, fondling and child porn.

what is 3rd degree child abuse

build up of tension stage, abuse stage, and hooneymoon stage

describe the cycle of spouse abuse

distrust, isolation, not ask for help in crisis, and does not offer help

what tyoe of behavior can you expect of a person who abuses  his/her spouse

Alcohol

what drug inducing slurred speech, flushed face, poor coordination, confusion, altered LOC

stimulant

what drug induces tachycardia, rapid breathing, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, excitement, euphoria, and anorexia

depressant

what drug causes sluggish, lack of coordination, slurred speech, pulse and breathing slow, sleepiness

 narcotic

what drug induces reduced pulse and respiratory rate, pupil constriction, coma,  diaphoresis, euphoria, sleepiness, and anxiety

pathologic

a fracture that results from disease, such as metastic cancer of the bone is called:

a hairline

b pathologic

c conenital

d traumatic

congenital

orthopaedic deformities cush as a clubfoot ot wryneck are categorized as

a infectious

b congenital

c pathologic

d temporary

traumatic injuries

military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems

a inflammatory disease

b congenital problems

c traumatic injuries

d infectious disease

d promotes flexion deformities of the hip

the semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in pts with orthopedic disorders because it

a causes drop foot

b causes venous stasis

c causes external hip rotation

d promotes flexion deformities of the hip

a muscular pain

what orthopedic problem would you suspect if your pt complains of soreness or aching?

a muscular pain

b bone infection

c malignant tumor

d psychocomatic issues

gender

which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?

a age

b gender

c extent of injury

d circulation to the area

phantom limb pain

the cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is reffered to as a:

 a phantom limb pain

b phantom limb sensation

c physiological phenomena

d psychological phenomena

tourniquet

what equipment is essential to have at the post operative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

 a suction

b oxygen

c NG tube

d Tourniquet

 a. a life long process

rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

 a. a life long process

b. of no use because they do not fully recover

c. continued for 6 months after the incury occured

d. continued for up to 2 yrs after the final surgery

cardiac arrest

turning a patient on a stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

a aspiration

b cardiac arrest

c disorientation

d respiratory tract

sustain life

during the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal

a sustain life

b stop ischemia

c maintain mobility

d monitor vital signs

pre school

during which child development state is seperation anxiety the most stressful?

 a early infancy

b preschool

c school age

d adolescene

established daily rituals and routines

which statement provides a hospitalized child wiht a sense of control?

a - stricly enforced rules

b - use os safety restraints

c - changes in daily routine

d - established daily rituals and routines

regressions

the normal adaptive mechanism used by children when the loose their sense of control is

a - fantasy

b - projection

c - regression

d - displacement

dehydration

when caring for a child with nausea and vomitting, a primary concern would be what?

you have other tasks to dom an dno time to sit with the child

which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

a. the physician needs to suture the childs face

b. the child continues to climb out of bed in the night

c. to prevent the child form falling out of a high chair

d. you have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child

less because of frequent daytime naps

the amount of sleep required at night by elderly pts is generally?

 a. less because of frequent daytime naps

b. more becuase of insuffucient activity

c.the same as required by all ages

d.more than for youthful pts

Extravasation

what serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues

a. infiltration

b. embolism

c. plebitis

d. extravasation

personality

all that a person is, feels, and does is gnerally termed

a environment

b. personality

c. character

d. heredity

self perception

what affects and individuals feeling about himself?

a. socioeconomic status

b. opinions of others

c. self perception

d. job title

neurosis

which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality

a. neurosis

b. phobia

c. delusion

d. psychoses

compulsion

which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

a.compulsion

b. delusion

c. anxiety

d. conflict

withdrawal

a patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of

a. withdrawal

b. suspicion

c. anxiety

d. anger

shared characteristics or established criteria

how are behaviordisorders and syndromes grouped into categories?

a. severity of behavior or shared characteristics

b. shared characteristics or established criteria

c.  severity of behavior and pts age

d. establish criteria and pts age

as soon as the pt is admitted

when does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient

a. during pre-admission

b. w/n 12 hrs of admission

c. w/n 24 hrs of admission

d. as soon as the pt is admitted

attitude of society

what major problem affects mental health treatment

a. attitude of society

b. cost of medical care

c. lask of adequate medication

d. limited number of appointments

behavior

when observing and reporting on mentally ill pts, the most important facotr to consider is:

a. behavior

b. appearance

c. conversation

d. sleeping habits

leave the other pts to follow the escaping pt

if you see a mentally ill pt sneak out of the nursing home unit, take all of the following actions?

a. telephone for help

b. try to describe the pt, including the pt's clothing

c. note the direction in which the pt is heading

d.leave the other pts to following the escaping pt

abuser

wh ois at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?

 a. child

b. abusers

c. parents

d. society

report the suspected abuse

what action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of  shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?

a.report the suspected abuse

b. only report if the pt admits abuse

c. counsel the parent on his or her actions

d. nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse

spouse states it wil lnever happen again

what occurs in the 3rd phase of spousal abuse?

a.counseling is sought

b. tension and stress builds

c. physical or verbal abuse occurs

d. spouse states it will never happen again

prone

if a pt is restrained, what position should he or she be in if the pt is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated?

a. supine

b. prone

c. semi-recumbent

d. high fowler's

pain, neurological damage, structural defects, weaknedd, psychological problems and rehab measures

what are common causes of immobility?

they must be convinced that the activity is going to help and motivated to do the activity

whattype of special nursing challenge do pts in pain present?

fatigue lowers pain tolerance

why should you schedule activities for a pt at a timewhen the pt is feeling energetic?

stroke victim

what type of pt is not usually able to communicate effectively?

inactivity or degenerative processess like cancer

what are 2 causes of weakness?

allows injured tissues to heal

what is the purposes of bed rest?

many who are on bedrest do not want to be on bedrest and will resist limitations

how do pts who are on bed rest differ from immobilized pts?

strange environment, cannot do anything to help or protect themselves, dont known whats gonna happen

what are 3 reason immobilized pts may be frightened?

regression and childlike behavior

what psychological condition is exhibited when a pt spends a great deal of time worrying aboul meals and bowel movements?

impaired circulation to the skin and subcutaneous tissue in areas of the body where the bony prominences lie close to the skin surface

what are the effects of a grade III ulcer?

poor posture, lack of supports, and streched muscles

the flow is slower b/c there is no muscle activity helping to push the blood thru the body

what  efefct does immobility have on the flow of blood thru the body?

inadequate vasoreconstriction

what causes orthostatic hypotension

backaches, muscles strain, and other permanent problems

what possible consequences of using poor body mechanics are discussed in the text?

the proper relationship of body carts to one another

define posture?

crossin gur legs or sitting to that the back of the chair is pressing against you rpupiteal area

what are 2 way you can impede the circulation to your lower legs when you are sitting?

your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your base of support

what is the relationship between your stability and your cernter of gravity?

shoulders, upper arms, thighs and hips

where are your largest muscles located?

the resistance of friction is less than the resistance of gravity

why should you use pulling or pushing movemenbts rather thank lifting movements

wash hands, greet patient, check id, and explain procedure

what 4 st4eps should preface any movement procedure

pts who have back, shoulder, or chest injuries

what types of pts cannot be moved using the shoulder lift technique

to shift the pts weight and to prevent from rolling

before turning a pt to the side-lying position why should you bend the pts leg?

about 12-15 inches apart with one slightly behind the other

how should you place ur feet when preparing to turn a pt ro his or her side?

when you push you lose some control and risk the possibility of accidentally pushing the pt out of bed

why is it better to pull than push the pt into a different position

for repositioning, to perform various procedures and in preperation fo rgettin gout of bed

what are the reasons pts are moved to the edge of the bed?

helpless and near helpless pt, pre-op and post-op pts, and others who must remain in a lying position

what type of pts are transported on strechers

at the head of the pt so that sshe.he can see that the pt and what the other techs are doing

what is the best position for the person who is controlling a move

@ po degree angle to the foot of the bed

where should the stretcher be positioned if the pt is to be transferred by lifting

3 person technique

what technique should you use to reposition a pt in the bed

with a drawsheet

 what is the preffered method for moving a pt from a bed to a strecher

head first

how do you place strectcher pts onto an elevator

the edge of the bed will put pressure onn the backs of the pts legs and interfere with circulation

why should the pts legs not be allowed to hang unsupported from the edge of the bed

doorway or elevator

when should you back up with a pt in a wheelchair

to provide smooth transfer and to reduce possibility o finjury to pt and tech

what are 2 purposes of mechanical aids

their muscles have atrophied and weakened and they are usually unsteady

why cant pts who have been bedridden for a long period of time just get up and walk?

help bedridden pts remain as active as possible and move the pt ou tof the bed in gradual stages

what can you do to reduce pt problems with ambulations?

pts physical condition, support needed, type of disability, and doctors order

what factorsdetermine the type of ambulation aid that will be used for each pt?

body 1st and then the crutches

what basic rule should a crutch pt follow when going up the stairs

PTS WHO ARE UNABLE OR NOT ALLOWED TO DO ACTIVE EXXERCISES

what type of pts should recieve passive exercises

movement towrds the ceneter of the body

what is adduction?

they prevent shortening of the muscles, tendons, ligaments, and join capsules that lead to join fixation

how do range of motion exercises helps prevent joint fixation?

Dr's order and pts diagnosis and capabilities

what informationwill help you decide the type of exercises pts need

cradle or cup the body part and support it above and below the injured joint

how should you support a body parrt when you are doing passive exercises

straining causes irregular heartbeats

why should you instruct the pts not to hold their breath as they do isometric exercises?

sodium-restricted

what diet is used for pt with hypertension or congestive heart failures

bland

which diet eliminates chemicals, mechanical and thermal irritants?

soft

what diet is used as a transition between full liquid and regular diet

clear liquids

what diets is inadequate in all nutrients and not given for more than 3 days

full liquid

what food is easily digested foods that malt and foods free from cellulose and spices

high calorie, high protien, regular

what type of diet is udes got pt who suffer from excessive weight loss

calorie-restricted

what diet contains fewer calories that the pt normally uses to metabolizes

regualar

what diet means that no restrictions  are on the types of food and nutrients a pt can eat

protein-restricted

what diet is used for pts with kidney or liver disease

the desire for food or and agreeable altitude towards eating food

define appetite

pain, discoomfort, and unpleasant sights sounds or odors

what physical sensations, mentioned in the test, that can cause a loss of appetite?

personal preference

what is the strongest force that affects a persons appetite?

af form 1094, diet order

on what form do you identify where the pt will eat

assist the pt wirh oral hygiene, assist pt to the bathroom or bedpan, provide equipment to wash his/or her hands

how should you prepare a pt for mealtime

diagnose disorder, feed pt, relieve distention, drain stomach, or wash out stomach

what are 5 reasons for the use of NG tube

gavage

what term is used to denote tube feedings?

room temp

at what temperatue whoul dthe tube feeding solution be when you use it?

10-20 mins

how many minuted will it take to properly administer a tube feeding

introduction of a solution into the stomach thru a tube and the siphoning the solution back out

what is lavage

relieve or prevent bladder distention, collect a sterile urine specimen or to empty bladder before certain surgical procedures

what are 3 reasons that catherizations are performed?

to prevent bladder damage, shock, chills and fever

why is it important to decompress the bladder slowly?

foley and straight

what are 2 types of catheters?

sterile

what type of technique ise used when inserting a catheter

6-10 inches or until the urine begins to flow

how far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for the male pt

2-3 inches or until the urine begins to flow

how far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for the female pt

to remove or wash out blood, pus, bacteria, or waste products following urinary surgery

what is the purpose of bladder irrigations

cleansing and retention

what are 2 types of enemas

releive constipation, prep for surgery, and preparation for diagnostic procedure

what are 3 reasons for the use of cleansing enemas

left lateral recumbent or on back

what position is the pt placed when administering an enema

5 minutes

apprx 12 inches above the rectum, but no more than 18 inches

when giveing a retention enema, how high should the solution container be held above the rectum?

treatment disease of the rectum and lower colon, soften fecal material, or soothe an irritated colon or rectum, and administer medication

what are retention enemas used for?

is establishing fecal co ntrol and keeping the pt clean

what are 2 reasons for colostomy irrigation?

begin the program early in the pts hospital stay

for pts who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to

a. schedule the activities for afternoon or evenings

b. begin the program easrly in the pts hospital stay

c. plan the activitities in conjunction with pain medications

d. provide reassurance and a clear explanation of the program

develop a good rapport

when planning activities for pts with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to

 a. motivate the pt

b. reassure the pt

c. show sincere concern

d. develop a good rapport

allow them to channel their hostility thru verbal expression

what should you do to help pts who become angry and hostile?

a. involve the pt in group therapy sessions

b. allow the pt to become physically abusive

c. refer the pt to the n urse for counseling

d. allow them to channel their hostility thru verbal expression

2 hours

to aid in preventing decubitu sulcers, pt positioning should be changed every

a.1 hr

b. 2hrs

c. 3 hrs

d. 4 hrs

maintain balance and prevent back hip and leg strain

why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?

a. prevent back, hip and leg strain

b. prevent back, hip, and neck strain

c. maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain

d. maintain balance and prevent back, hip and neck strain

base of support

Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your

a. axis

b. head

c. internal gridle

d. base of support

shoulder-lift

which technique for moving the pt up in bed is not used for a pt who has back or chest injuries?

 a. 1 person

b. 2 person

c. shoulder-lift

d. 2-person with drawsheet

raise the near side rail

when turning a pt, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the pt?

a. don not push to hard

b. raise the far side rail

c. traise the near side rail

d. lock the wheel on the bed

when transfering pts, you can reduce the chanceof injury to urself by

a. locking beds and wheelchairs before the transfer

b. using good team work and proper body mechanics

c. explaining the procedure to the pt prior to the transfer

d. knowing the pt weight and capabilities prior to the transfer

pressure on the back of the legs

a pt's feet must beplaced on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent

a. the pt from falling out the bed

b. pressure on the back of the legs

c. pulmonary hypertension

d. embolism

drawsheet and roller board

which deviced can be used to slide a pt from the bed to the strecher

a. drawsheet and trapeze

b. drawsheet and roller board

c. drawsheet and pt hoist

d. roller board and pt hoist

beside and a little behind the pt wiht your near arm interlocked with the pts near arm

when helping a pt to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

a. beside the pt with your near arm interlocked with the pt's near arm

b.beside the pt with one hadn on the pt's waist and one hand under his or her near arm

c. beside and a little behind the pt with your near arm interlocked with the pt's near arm

d. beside and a little behind the pt with your near arm interlocked with the pts near arm

4 Point

which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by pts who can bear some weight on both legs?

a. 2 point

b. 3 point

c. 4 point

d. swing through

three point

which gait is used by pts who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial ot no weight on the other

 a. 2-point

b. 3-point

c. 4-point

d. swing through

muscle contraction without body movement

isometric exercises are activities that involve

a. muscles relaxation without body movement

b. muscle relaxation w/o any body movement

c. muscle contraction without body movement

d. muscle contraction with body movement

heart attack (cardiac arrest)

care must be taken to ensure pts do not hold their breath while performing isometric exercises as they may cause

 a. muscle strain

b. heart attack

c. dizziness

d.acidosis

liquid

what diet is usually ordered for pts who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract

a. soft

b. bland

c. liquid

d. regular

clear liquid

the diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and ahould not be given for more than 3 days is the

 a. soft diet

b. full liduid

c. clear liquid

d. mineral-restricted

room temperature

what should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage

 a. hot

b. chilled

c. lukewarm

d. room temperature

750 to 1000cc

to prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between

a. 550 to 800cc

b. 650 to 900cc

c. 750 to 1000cc

d. 850 to 1100cc

2-3

during catherizationof a female pt, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder

 a. 2-3

b. 3-4

c. 4-5

d. 5-6

prevent air from entering into the bladder

the urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to

a. prevent the risk of contamination of the catheter tip

b. prevent dripping of urine on the bed linen

c. eliminate any possible pain to the pt

d. prevent air from entering into the bladder

5

for what length of time in minutes should the pt retain the solution of a cleansing enema?

a. 1

b. 5

c. 10

d. 20

1/3 full

the pts colostomy bag should be changed when it is

a. 1/3 full

b. 1/2 full

c. 3/4 full

d. full

80-100 mm HG

what is partial pressure of arterial oxygen?

35-45 mm HG

what is partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide

7.34 -7.45

what is the percentage of hydrogen ions

95-98 %

what is the arterial oxygen saturation

hypoxemia

what term means the pt has a low oxygen content in the arterial blood

respiratory alkalosis

hyperventalation can cause that type of acid- base imbalance

respiratory acidosis

hypoventalation can cause what type of acid-base imbalance

before and after respiratory treatments

when providing respiratory care, when do you  listen to lung sounds

rales - fine crackling sounds

snoring - noisy brething caused by an obstructed airway

Ronchi - course, gurgling sounds heard best on expiration

wheezing - a whistling sound

b/c O2 supports combustion and makes things more flammable

why should "no smoking" signs be posted outside rooms where oxygen is in use?

cotton

what type of blanket muyst be used in areas where oxygen is in use?

ensure that the fill date does no exceed 5 yrs and that they tank is secured to keep it from falling over

what safety precautions should you take if you are using a metal oxygen tank

pts who are very sick, restless, or uncooperative

for what type of pt is an oxygen tent used?

NRB Mask

how is the concentration of oxygeen concentration of 60-90 percent?

venturi mask

what type of mask is used when the pt needs low concentrations of oxygen, 24 to 50 percent

when other attempts in increases the pts PaO2 have failed, and prior ro intubation

when is continous positive airway pressure mask used?

water may overflow into the gauge

what will happen if the humidifier is too full when u are using nasal canula

every 48 hrs

how often are humidifiers changed?

a doctor or anesthesia

who is normally responsible for inserting endotracheal tubes

to help maintain a clean and dry area longer

why is a tracheostomy prior ro changing the dressing

q8 Hours, or as often as the physician orders it

how often should tracheostomy care be performed

Difficulty breathing on exertion, which is relieved by rest 

what is exertional dsypnea

unusual or irregular heart beats felt by the pt

what are palpitations?

a fall in cardiac output

what is one cause of the cardiogenic synoscope

a reduced amoutn of hemoglobin

what is the cause of cyanosis

arteriosclerosis

what can casue diminished pulses

apex of the heart

what can cause diminished pulses

closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

..during ausculation of heart sound, what does the S1 represent?

one listens over the apex of the heart with that at the radial artery

what is the purpose of taking an apical-radial pulse?

to terminate ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia

what is the purpose of defibrillation?

continue CPR until the physician decides the next course of action

what should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful

electronic monitoring of the heart rhythm over airways

what is telemetry

70-90 mm/hg

what is the normal arterial pressure

a pressure bag

what prevents blood from backing up the tubing of an arterial line

venous blood volume, assessment if right sided heart failure and determinations of heart infarctions

what type of information can a CVP provide to a physician

brachial femoral subclavain, jugular

veins

name 4 possible sites of a CVP line

to decrease chance of an air embolism

why is the pt taught to perform the valsalva maneuver prior to insertion of a cvp line

5-12 cm h2o

what is normal cvp range

8-41 mm/hg

what is the normal range for the PCWP?

left ventricular failure, pulmonary congestions, and hypervolemia

what are PCWPs greater than 20 mm HG associated with?

injuries to face and throat, loose dentures or teeth, deformities or swelling

what types of head and facial injuries could result in airway problems?

conjuntiva becomes bright red

how does conjunctiva react to injury or or irritation?

the particle often leaves a small scratch on the surface od the conjunctiva that continues to irritate the eye even after it has been removed

why does a small particle continue to irritate they eye even after it is removed

dont attempt to remove, notify the doctor and let him or her handle the problem.

what should you do with a particle that is lodged on the cornea

bleeding into the anterior chamber of th eye

why is hyphemia

perform a flueroscent eye strain

how do you detect corneal abrasion

apply pressure on both sides of the cheek

 how shoul dyou handle laceration that extends all the way throught the cheek

avoid the airway maneuvers that may cause further damage

how should you handle a pt who is bleeding from the mouth and has apossible spinal cord injury?

can end up pushing it further back

wh6y should you never attempt to remove objects that have been forced into the nose

pain, swelling, bite, irregularity, loos or absent teeth, inability to talk or swallow, increased salavation, bleeding in mouth and lose bone fragments

what are indications of cial fractures

an occlusive dressing is used to prevent the possibiliy of an air embolism being sucked in thru a vein

what type of dressing should be used on neck injuries and why

electrical, hear, ekectric, radiation

what elements can cause burns to body tissues

facial burns are usually accompanied by injuries to the respiratory tract

why is the mortalilty rate high for facial burns?

by agent and source, degree and severity

what are 3 ways to assess a burn victim