How is doctrine applied?

a. Authoritive but not directive.

b. Not authorative but directive.

c. Directive but not authorative.

d. Directive and authorative.

Which is of the following is the fprimary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission?

a. AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine.

b. AFDD 1-1, Ledership and Force Development.

c. AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services.

d. AFDD 2-8, Command and Control.

Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

a. Recommends step by step actions.

b. Direct the action of commanders.

c. Guides commanders in using assets.

d. Changes faster than Air Force guidance.

What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but its broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

a. Basic.

b. Tactical.

c. Operational.

d. Foundational.

c. Operational.

Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

a. The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.

b. An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind.

c. An automotive designer because they are historical data such as gas mileage to develop vehicle structure.

d. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.

d. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.

Which of the following is not one of the the three foundational Doctrine statements airman should be familiar with?

a. Competency.

b. Use of Force.

c. Force Health Protection.

d. Roles and Responsiblities of the Air Force Medical Services.

While commanders hold ultimate responsibilty for morale, health, and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

a. Physicians.

b. Supervisors.

c. Every airman.

d. Health and wellness staff.

When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Foundation Doctrine is accomplished?

a. Competency.

b. Prevention.

c. Force Health Protection.

d. Roles and Responsibilities.

What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?

a. First.

b. Second.

c. Third.

d. Fifth.

How many parts make up the Career Field Educaiton and Training Plan?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

In what part of Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the specialty Training Standard?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestone and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?

a. Individual Training Record.

b. Master Training Plan.

c. AF Form 1098.

d. Af Form 797.

Which is the following is identified by the Special Experience Identifier?

a. Aerospace Medical Technician.

b. Aeromedical Evacuation Technician.

c. Squadron Medical Element Technician.

d. Independent Duty Medical Technician.

Who is generally the first of a unit to have contact with the patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?

a. Nurse.

b. Administrative Technician.

c. Aerospace Medical Service Craftsman.

d. Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman.

d. Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman.

When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the novice to the apprentice.

a. novice to the apprentice.

b. apprentice to the journeyman.

c. journeyman to the craftsman.

d craftman to the technician.

b. apprentice to the journeyman.

Why is it important for the 4N0X1 to develop excellent customer service?

a. Prevent lawsuits.

b. Develop job satisfaction.

c. Ensure promotion below-the-zone.

d. Positively influence the patient's visit.

d. Positively influence the patient's visit.

Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?

a. Chief Nurse.

b. Command Chief.

c. Career Field Manager.

d. Medical Group Commander.

How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?

a. Six months

b. Year.

c. Three years.

d. Five Years.

Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assesment Survey?

a. Commander.

b. Supervisor.

c. 3-level.

d. 5-level.

What is the purpose of documenting training?

a. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.

b. Document the number of persnnel and the hours they work.

c. Enable enlisted personnel to challenge a nursing board.

d. Establish patient care guidelines for civilian practice.

On what form would you document  specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard?

a. AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluation.

b. AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Reccuring Training.

c. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

d. AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training, Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) Product.

c. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

When may the AETC form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?

a. When Airman arrives at the first duty station.

b. When the rank of Master Sergeant has been attained.

c. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.

d. When the Airman is upgraded from the 5-skill level to the 7-skill level.

c. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.

Where would the National registry of Emergency Medical Technician certificate and the cardio pulmonary resuscitation card can be filed in the Individual Training Record?

a. Part 2, Section A.

b. Part 3, Section C.

c. Part 5, Section A.

d. Part 6, Section B.

d. Part 6, Section B.

What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?

a. Ensure there are refreshments available.

b. Ask how many people will be attending.

c. Evaluate learning through performance or tests.

d. Confirm wether the commander will be attending.

c. Evaluate learning through performance or tests.

What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

a. UMD.

b. UMPR.

c. CFETP.

d. MEPRS.

d. MEPRS.

How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?

a. Hours and section.

b. Type and section.

c. Hours and AFSC.

d. Type and AFSC.

What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?

a. UMD.

b. ACR.

c. UPMR.

d. MEPRS.

Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?

a. Manpower Standard.

b. Manning Assistance.

c. Manpower Requirement.

d. Manpower Authorization.

Who approves or disapproves an authorization Change Request?

a. USAFMS.

b. MAJCOM.

c. Squadron commander.

d. Medical group commander.

Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

a. Each individual.

b. Unit supervisor.

c. Group commander.

d. Account custodian.

Who is the designated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and descipline of supply use?

a. Supervisors.

b. Commanders.

c. Property custodians.

d. Medical Equipment Management Office personnel.

By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

a. Equipment damage and injury to a patient.

b. Injury to a patient and buying new technology.

c. Reporting damage and buying new technology.

d. Reporting damage to the commander and logistics.

a. Equipment damage and injury to a patient.

What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?

a. 20 percent.

b. 50 percent.

c. 70 percent.

d. 90 percent.

What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

a. Backorder report.

b. Activity issue/turn-in summary.

c. Custodial actions/custodian report listing.

d. Medical equipment review and authorization activity.

What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

a. None. Once an item is ordered you must recieve it when it arrives.

b. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.

c. Tell MEMO you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.

d. None. It is always better to have extra supplies on hand.

. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO

What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

a. Cancel the order

b. Complain to the commander.

c. Wait another 15 days and then follow up.

d. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order.

d. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order.

When does a new property custodian assumes responsibilty for items on the property equipment lists?

a. Upon signing the the custodian reciept/locator list.

b. When they completed Phase II supply training.

c. Upon being assigned as property custodian.

d. The first day of the new fiscal year.

a. Upon signing the the custodian reciept/locator list.

Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must

a. recieve a briefing on responsibilities.

b. conduct a physical inventory of equipment.

c. document his/her experience for commander review.

d. review the files to establish when equipment was procured.

When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?

a. When the new fiscal year begins.

b. When MEMO personnel give permission.

c. When a new property custodian take over.

d. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL.

d. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL.

How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?

a. Daily.

b. Weekly.

c. Monthly.

d. Quarterly.

What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?

a. Inspect, store, and remove.

b. Inspect, remove, and report.

c. Report, remove, and repair.

d. Remove, store, and repair.

What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?

a. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt only.

b. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing.

c. Activity issue/turn-in summary or backorder report.

d. Activity issue/turn-in summary only.

b. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing.

Who should contact to obtain the most common procedures and local policy for equipment problems concerns?

a. District sales and mainenance representative.

b. Base supply and equipment maintenance.

c. Biomedical equipment repair technician.

d. Original equipment manufacturer.

Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

a. Telling the truth.

b. Respect for others.

c. The duty to do no harm.

d. Being faithful to do good.

Which of the following defines fidelity?

a. Fairness.

b. Telling the truth.

c. The duty to do no harm.

d. Acting in a responsible manner.

d. Acting in a responsible manner.

What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?

a. UMD.

b. STS.

c. MTF.

d. UPMR.

What are patient responsibilities designed to do?

a. Protect the patient.

b. Protect other patients.

c. Protect the patient and health care workers.

d. Protect other patients and health care workers.

d. Protect other patients and health care workers.

Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following circumstances?

a. Administrative.

b. Chaperone.

c. Supervisory.

d. Appointing.

During which state of the grieving process is it most important to allow patient to do most of the talking?

a. Depression.

b. Acceptance.

c. Denial.

d. Anger.

Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record?

a. DD Form 2500.

b. DD Form 2005.

c. DD Form 93-975.

d. DD Form 93-552a.

Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement - Health Care Record used when providing medical care?

a. Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document.

b. A required document that the patient must sign receiving treatment.

c. Prevents patient from filing a malpractice suit against the government.

d. Is a military substitute for a patient consent form.

a. Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document.

Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act affect?

a. Patients handling their information.

b. Anyone handling patient information.

c. Medical staff handling patient information.

d. Administrating staff handling patient information.

b. Anyone handling patient information.

For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, use

a. DOD Regulation 6025.18-R

b. AFJI 44-17

c. AFI 41-210

d. AFI 33-332.

a. DOD Regulation 6025.18-R

Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?

a. Preinteractive.

b. Introductory.

c. Working.

d. Termination.

Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?

a. Smiling.

b. Laughing.

c. Talking too much.

d. Identifying commonalities.

Who is considered the patient advocate?

a. Clinic representative only.

b. Officer-in-charge only.

c. Facility representative only.

d. Every staff member.

d. Every staff member.

Who is an excellent resource to guide patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services?

a. Family practice clinic.

b. Internal medicine clinic.

c. The MTF commander.

d. The patient advocate.

d. The patient advocate.

What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?

a. Reduce the number of lawsuits.

b. Provide an unbiased third party.

c. To determine the correct treatment plan.

d. To approve funding for off-base treatment.

What is the purpose of customer-service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

a. Collect patient demographic information.

b. Determine the health of the local population.

c. Aid manpower in determining allocation requests.

d. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients.

d. Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients.

Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?

a. No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky.

b. Yes; the problem may be simple and the patient could treat themselves.

c. No; only doctors can legally give medical advice over the telephone.

d. Yes; many medical problems do not require a doctor's examination.

a. No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky.

How should you handle a non-emergent telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?

a. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.

b. Inform the caller te doctor is busy and ask them to try to call back later.

c. Inform the caller the doctor is not taking calls during appointment hours.

d. Knock on the door and inform the physician he or she has a telephone call.

a. Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.

Which of the following is an appropiate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

a. Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness.

b. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety.

c. Take the patient to a room to wait 20-30 minutes before the provider.

d. Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patient's fear.

b. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety.

Analysis of performance and health status is the responsiblity of which primary care management team member?

a. Provider.

b. Nurse.

c. 4N0.

d. 4A0.

What four components make up the PCM team?

a. Provider, nurse, medical technician and mental health technician.

b. Provider, nurse, medical technician, and health services management technician.

c. Nurse, medical technician, health services management technician, and health services management technician.

d. Nurse, medical technician, dental technician and mental health technician.

When a PCM is succesful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do?

a. No team members will work extra hours.

b. Be abke to do the job of every other team member.

c. Contribute at the highest level of their scope of practice.

d. Make sure all patients have appointments on the day requested.

c. Contribute at the highest level of their scope of practice.

It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure

a. each team member enjoys going to work each day.

b. each team member can take leave on the requested days.

c. the best care is provided to our customers.

d. the team learns new medical technology.

c. the best care is provided to our customers.

Which one of the following is not a habit of a succesful PCM team?

a. Being proactive.

b. Managing a panel.

c. Communicating.

d. Being punctual.

d. Being punctual.

Who is ultimately responsible for establishing and individual's eligibility for medical care in the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System?

a. MTF.

b. PCM.

c. MPF.

d. MHS.

At what age are children required to have their own ID cards?

a. Eight.

b. Nine.

c. Ten.

d. Eleven.

When patients requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, you should

a. make them an appointment and worry about the details later.

b. tell the patients that you will not see them until they can prove eligibility.

c. tell the patient to have a seat and have them seen on a space available basis.

d. have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment.

d. have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment.

If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligibilty for care, you should

a. provide the patient care then determine elibility.

b. determine eligibilty first and provide treatment only if they are eligible.

c. inform the patient that they will be billed for the visit and ensure they agree to pay.

d. have the patient wait and ask a provider to see them at the end of scheduled patients.

a. provide the patient care then determine elibility.

Patients treated without initial proof of eligibilty must sign a statement saying that they will provide eligibilty documentation within what time frame?

a. 15 days.

b. 30 days.

c. 45 days.

d. 60 days.

When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics?

a. AHLTA.

b. DEERS.

c. CHCS.

d. MHS.

Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least

a. weekly.

b. monthly.

c. quarterly.

d. annually.

If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for you to use?

a. Appointment scheduling.

b. Results reporting.

c. Entry of lab requests.

d. Outpatient coding data.

If you are trying to determine the deploying status of a unit, what sytem should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS Optimization?

a. CHCS.

b. AHLTA.

c. DEERS.

d. DMLS.

When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

a. No care or treatment was accomplished.

b. There is no follow up care required.

c. There were no complications.

d. The outcome was positive.

 a. No care or treatment was accomplished.

Before managed care, who shuoldered the responsibility for follow-up care?

a. Provider.

b. Nurse.

c. Patient.

d. Aerospace Medical Service Technician.

c. Patient.

The ICD-9 is divided into how many sections?

a. Three.

b. Four.

c. Five.

d. Six.

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD-9?

a. not elsewhere classified.

b. next event cancelled.

c. not elsewhere coded.

d. new event code.

How does the anatomical lateral position differ from the term medial?

a. At the back of the body or body part.

b. Toward the back of the body or body part.

c. Away from the midline of the body or body part.

d. Toward the head or area of the body that is closer to the head.

c. Away from the midline of the body or body part.

A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?

a. Circumduction.

b. Range of motion.

c. Longitudnal axis.

d. Axis of joint rotation.

d. Axis of joint rotation.

You are double-checking the doctor's order before going into one of your patients, Mrs. Jones room. What would it mean for Mrs. Jones if the doctor's orders as NPO?

a. May walk around as desired.

b. Should increase her fluid intake.

c. May not have anything to eat or drink.

d. May not get out of bed without assistance.

You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly?

a. Patient complains of blurred vision-OD.

b. Patient complains of blurred vision-AD.

c. Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye.

d. The technician iforms the provider but does not document.

You would not find which of the following components in the cytoplasm of a cell?

a. Nucleus.

b. Centrosomes.

c. Golgi apparatus.

d. Endoplastic reticulum.

The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the?

a. vesicle.

b. ribosome.

c. golgi apparatus.

d. endoplasmic reticulum.

d. endoplasmic reticulum.

What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

a. Ribosomes.

b. Lysosomes.

c. Peroxsomes.

d. Mitochondria.

d. Mitochondria.

What part of the cell plays an important role in processing proteins within the cell and other areas of the body?

a. Ribosomes.

b. Centrosomes.

c. Cilia and flagella.

d. Endoplasmic reticulum.

Which phase of the mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing?

a. Anaphase.

b. Prophase.

c. Telophase.

d. Metaphase.

In what part of the cell life cycle would the cell continue to grow until it divided again?

a. Mitosis.

b. Interphase.

c. Metabolism.

d. Cell differentiation.

The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as

a. interphase.

b. metaphase.

c. cell differentiation.

d. cytoplasmic division.

What type of tissue is found in the spinal cord?

a. Cardiac.

b. Smooth.

c. Skeletal.

d. Nervous.

d. Nervous.

What type of tissue can change its shape?

a. Muscle.

b. Nervous.

c. Epithelial.

d. Connective.

Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

a. Nervous.

b. Epithelial.

c. Smooth muscle.

d. Cardiac muscle.

d. Cardiac muscle.

Which muscle is attached to the eyelid?

a. Levator palpebrae superiosis.

b. Superior oblique.

c. Anterior oblique.

d. Lateral rectus.

Aqeous humor fills the space between the cornea and the

a. iris.

b. sclera.

c. macula.

d. conjunctiva.

What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?

a. Rods.

b. Cones.

c. Anterior portion of the iris.

d. Posterior portion of the iris.

What nerve is the pathway to vision?

a. Posterior.

b. Anterior.

c. Sclera.

d. Optic.

d. Optic.

The auditory ossicles are located in the

a. cochlea.

b. inner ear.

c. middle ear.

d. semicircular canals.

Movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the

a. pinna.

b. cochlea.

c. malleus.

d. organ of Corti.

What is the system of chambers and tubes within the inner ear called?

a. Cochlea.

b. Labrynith.

c. Vestibule.

d. Semicircular canal.

Which of the following is a nassal air passageway?

a. Olfactory bulb.

b. Middle meatus.

c. Anterior meatus.

d. Olfactory receptor.

Odors are described as belonging to which of the organ groups?

a. seven primary odors, or combination of at least two of them.

b. six primary odors or a combination of at least two of them.

c. five primary odors or a combination of at least two of them.

d. four primary odors or a combination of at least two of them.

a. seven primary odors, or combination of at least two of them.

What part of the nasal cavity does the superior meatus, middle meatus and inferior meatus make up?

a. nasal conchae.

b. cribform plate.

c. nerve pathways.

d. olfactory receptors.

The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the

a. atratum basale.

b. stratum corneum.

c. stratum spinosum.

d. stratum granulosum.

Which glands play a role in keeping the hair and skin soft and waterproof?

a. Sebaceous.

b. Apocrine.

c. Ecerine.

d. Sweat.

The nail grows outward from the white area at the base called the

a. nail plate.

b. dermis.

c. lunula.

d. nail bed.

What substance is secreted by the sabaceous gland?

a. Sebum.

b. Sweat.

c. Follicle.

d. Adipose.

Pigmentation is attributed to

a. melanin.

b. dermal cells.

c. subcutaneous cells.

d. sebaceous gland secretions.

a. melanin.

What substance does melanocyte produce?

a. Sebum.

b. Melanin.

c. Adipose.

d. Pigmentation.

Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?

a. Bone ends.

b. Sesamoid bones.

c. Medullary canal.

d. Outermost portion of the bone.

Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?

a. Articular.

b. Periosteum.

c. Cancellous bone.

d. Medullary cavity.

d. Medullary cavity.

What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?

a. Long

b. Short.

c. Irregular.

d. Sesamoid.

What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

a. Patella.

b. Fibula.

c. Femur.

d. Tibia.

The epimysium is located beneath the

a. fascia.

b. fascicles.

c. perimysium.

d. endomysium.

What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

a. Voluntary; striated.

b. Voluntary; non striated.

c. Involuntary; striated.

d. Involuntary; non striated.

The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the

a. fascia.

b. tendon.

c. perimysium.

d. endomysium.

What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?

a. Tendons.

b. Ligaments.

c. Aponeuroses.

d. Visceral muscles.

What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?

a. Condyloid.

b. Gomphosis.

c. Syndesmosis.

d. Synchondrosis.

What type of joint connects the sternum and first rib?

a. Condyloid.

b. Gomphosis.

c. Syndesmosis.

d. Synchrondosis.

d. Synchrondosis.

What fluid act as a fluid lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?

a. Gomphosis.

b. Synovial.

c. Mucosal.

d. Blood. 

The valves that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the

a. aortic valve.

b. mitral valve.

c. tricuspid valve.

d. pulb. Synovial.monary valve.

What is the term for the muscular portion of the heart?

a. Septum.

b. Pericardium.

c. Myocardium.

d. Endocardium.

What is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?

a. Aortic.

b. Mitral.

c. Tricuspid.

d. Pulmonary.

What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

a. Plasma.

b. Platelets.

c. Leukocytes.

d. Erythrocytes.

The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the

a. pulse pressure.

b. residual pressure.

c. systolic blood pressure.

d. diastolic blood pressure.

d. diastolic blood pressure.

What veins return blood back to the heart from the lower body?

a. Capillaries.

b. Pulmonary vein.

c. Superior vena cava.

d. Inferior vena cava.

d. Inferior vena cava.

What is the vein that carries oxygenated blood?

a. Aorta.

b. Pulmonary.

c. Superior vena cava.

d. Inferior vena cava.

What is the purpose of the lymphatic sytem?

a. Removes excess fluid and assist blood clotting.

b. Removes waste products and assist in blood clotting.

c. Defends the body againts infection and remove excess fluid.

d. Defends the body against infection and removes waste products.

c. Defends the body againts infection and remove excess fluid.

Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called

a. lymphatic ducts.

b. lymphatic capillaries.

c. afferent lymphatic vessels.

d. efferent lymphatic vessels.

d. efferent lymphatic vessels.

What is the largest lymphatic organ?

a. Heart.

b. Spleen.

c. Thymus.

d. Right lymphatic duct.

Lymph is transported through the lymphatic trunk directly to the

a. spleen.

b. the thymus.

c. collecting duct.

d. left subclavian vein.

What special organs do the larger lymphatic vessels lead to?

a. lymph fluids.

b. lymph nodes.

c. lymphatic trunks.

d. lymphatic capillaries.

What part of the lymph system acts as a filter?

a. Capillaries.

b. Vessels.

c. Nodes.

d. Ducts.

What lymphatic organ is located in the mediastanum between the aorta and sternum?

a. Heart.

b. Thymus.

c. Thoracic cage.

d. Parotid gland.

Where does the lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?

a. Aorta.

b. Left ventricle.

c. Left subclavian vein.

d. Right subclavian vein.

d. Right subclavian vein.

Once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as

a. blood.

b. lymph.

c. plasma.

d. body fluid.

The larynx is composed of how many cartilages?

a. Two single cartilages.

b. Three single cartilages.

c. Two single and two paired cartilages.

d. Three single and three paired cartilages.

d. Three single and three paired cartilages.

What part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage?

a. Larynx.

b. Trachea.

c. Pharynx.

d. Esophagus.

During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move

a. back and slightly upward.

b. back and slightly downward.

c. forward and slightly upward.

d. forward and slightly downward.

The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs with each neutral respiration is known as

a. tidal air.

b. residual air.

c. vital capacity.

d. expiratory reserve.

The small spaces between the neurons are called

a. axons.

b. synapses.

c. nerve cells.

d. trigger zones.

What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other?

a. Bipolar.

b. Sensory.

c. Interneuron.

d. Multipolar.

The part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the

a. pons.

b. midbrain.

c. cerbrum.

d. medulla oblongata.

d. medulla oblongata.

What are the three major parts of the brain?

a. Cerebrum, cerebellum, and parietal.

b. Cerebellum, frontal and brain stem.

c. Cerebrum, cerebellum and brain stem

d. Temporal, cerebrum, and medulla oblongata.

What is the function of the interior of the cerebrum?

a. Storing knowledge.

b. Control of the brain.

c. Control of vision and hearing.

d. Coordination of muscle movement.

What is the name of the large intersection of interlaced spinal nerves?

a. trigeminal.

b. autonomic.

c. brachial.

d. plexus.

d. plexus.

What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?

a. Optic.

b. Facial.

c. Tigenemal.

d. Oculomotor.

What cranial nerve conveys taste?

a. Vagus.

b. Hypoglossal

c. Spinal accessory.

d. Glossopharyngeal.

d. Glossopharyngeal.

The "fight or flight" reaction is controlled by the

a. cerebrum.

b. meninges.

c. symphatic nervous system.

d. parasymphatic nervous system.

The parasymphatic nervous sytem is designed to

a. provide pain relief.

b. provide additional energy.

c. prevent extended overworking of the body.

d. prevent prolonged relaxation of body systems.

Where is the sigmoid in the abdominal cavity?

a. RUQ

b. LUQ

c. LLQ

d. RLQ

The segment of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substance through the canal is the

a. serous

b. muscular

c. submucosa

d. mucous membrane

What part of the alimentary canal is between the pharync and the stomach?

a. Jejunum.

b. Esophagus.

c. Ileocecal valve

d. Phyloric sphincter.

The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the

a. colon.

b. cecum.

c. jejunum.

d. pyloric region.

What is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

a. Septum.

b. Papillae.

c. Frenulum.

d. Gastric gland.

What is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the number for permanent teeth a person will develop?

a. 5.

b. 10.

c. 12.

d. 16.

Where undigested chime go after leaving the ileum?

a. Liver.

b. Cecum.

c. Duodenum.

d. Anal canal.

Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?

a. Ileum.

b. Colon.

c. Duodenum.

d. Small intestine.

What gland secretes substance to moisten food particles and help with swallowing?

a. Bile.

b. Thymus.

c. Salivary.

d. Adenoid.

What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?

a. Bile.

b. Chime.

c. Saliva.

d. Blood.

Kidneys are in posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the

a. thoracic to the lumbar spinal region.

b. thoracic to the coccyx spinal region.

c. lumbar the coccyx spinal region.

d. lumbar to the sacrum spinal region.

What is the primary function of the renal cortex?

a. Provide filtration system.

b. Connect nerves and blood vessels.

c. To hold tiny systems of coiled tubules.

d. Protect kidney functions in the renal medulla.

d. Protect kidney functions in the renal medulla.

Backflow of urine in the ureters is prevented by

a. conscious control.

b. the internal sphincter.

c. the external sphincter.

d. a flap of mucous membrane.

d. a flap of mucous membrane.

The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many milliliters of urine?

a. 50

b. 250

c. 500

d. 600

What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations?

a. Ureter.

b. Cortex.

c. Nephron.

d. External sphincter.

The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of

a. adipose tissue.

b. seminal muscle.

c. connective tissue.

d. seminiferous muscle.

The coiled tubule located on the top and to the side of each testes is the

a. ejaculatory duct.

b. seminal vescicles.

c. vas deferens.

d. epididymis.

d. epididymis.

What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body?

a. Urethra.

b. Epididymis.

c. Ejaculatory duct.

d. Seminal vescicles.

Where are sperm cells produced?

a. testes.

b. semen.

c. epididymis.

d. ejaculatory duct.

Fluid is secreted from the seminal vescicles to help carry the sperm through the

a. testes.

b. epididymis.

c. prostate gland.

d. ejaculatory duct.

d. ejaculatory duct.

What is the inner wall of the uterus called?

a. Fundus.

b. Perimitrium.

c. Endometrium.

d. Myometrium.

What happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it?

a. Travels to the uretus and attaches to the endometrium.

b. Remains in the ovaries then travel to the perimitrium.

c. Travels to the uretus and attaches to the myometrium.

d. Remains in the ovaries then attaches to the prometrium.

a. Travels to the uretus and attaches to the endometrium.

The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when

a. fertilization occurs.

b. an ovum travels through the fallopian tube.

c. an ovum is released from one of the ovaries.

d. blood flows from the uterus through the vagina.

What is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once the puberty is reached?

a. Ova.

b. Menses.

c. Estrogen.

d. Menarche.

d. Menarche.

What hormone is secreted during the menstrual cycle?

a. Perimetrium.

b. Testosterone.

c. Progesterone.

d. Prostaglandin.

The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the

a. Islets of Langerhans.

b. cortex and medulla.

c. stomatropin and thyrotropin.

d. anterior lobe and posterior lobe.

d. anterior lobe and posterior lobe.

Which organ secretes the adenocorticotropic hormone?

a. Thyroid gland.

b. Adrenal cortex.

c. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

d. Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?

a. TSH.

b. Thyroxine.

c. Aldosterone.

d. Triiodothyronine.

Which part of the adrenal gland makes up most of it?

a. Adrenal cortex.

b. Adrenal medulla.

c. Parathyroid.

d. Pituitary.