Term
What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?
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|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a minimum, how frequently should are-specific general operating instructions (IO) be reviewed? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which infectious organisms are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition must be present for a virus to multiply? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)? |
|
Definition
| Reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. |
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|
Term
| What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated? |
|
Definition
| Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water. |
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|
Term
| One of the most common serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is: |
|
Definition
| Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) |
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|
Term
| A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by: |
|
Definition
| Using the telephone or locally derived form. |
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|
Term
| Which medical term means the absence of infection? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on: |
|
Definition
| Before entering, and take it off before leaving. |
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|
Term
| What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method? |
|
Definition
| When package integrity is compromised. |
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|
Term
| Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer? |
|
Definition
| Between 122 and 131 degrees F. |
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|
Term
| Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines? |
|
Definition
| Patient's full name and date of birth. |
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|
Term
| What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare? |
|
Definition
| Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. |
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|
Term
| The very-low-density lipoproteins transport: |
|
Definition
| triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells. |
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|
Term
| Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is a characteristic of late adulthood? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a worksite wellness program? |
|
Definition
| Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle. |
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|
Term
| A good source of protein is: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following except: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| A sign of Vitamin A deficiency include: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which ailment is not treated by Vitamin K? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen: |
|
Definition
| Through an excessive amount of fluid loss. |
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|
Term
| When administering potassium IV, you should, |
|
Definition
| Mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. |
|
|
Term
| Which route is injectable iron administered? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Complex carbohydrates are called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Calcium can be found in all of the following source except: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which is an accurate description of leukocytes? |
|
Definition
| Protect against disease at the cellular level. |
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|
Term
| The life span of lymphocytes is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms? |
|
Definition
| Lymphocytes and Macrophages. |
|
|
Term
| The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient? |
|
Definition
| Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes. |
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|
Term
| Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmia, leading to a cardiac or respiratory arrest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to: |
|
Definition
| Administer fluids into the circulatory system. |
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|
Term
| What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an IV solution? |
|
Definition
| Remove protective devices yourself. |
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|
Term
| In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage om patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient's IV site? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In cubic centimeters, what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an IV solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine? |
|
Definition
| Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. |
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|
Term
| After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter? |
|
Definition
| Read the operating instructions. |
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|
Term
| In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A proctoscopy is an inspection of the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving: |
|
Definition
| In the direction of hair growth. |
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|
Term
| The eye can generally see wavelengths between: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what age is visual acuity at its best? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are" |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities on electrocardiogram tracings? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the: |
|
Definition
U.S Air Force Central Electricardiographic Library. |
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|
Term
What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation falls below: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When can the minor surgery procedure begin? |
|
Definition
After the consent form is signed. |
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|
Term
When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When cleaning a two inch laceration kb a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
After you have applied a anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next? |
|
Definition
Assess sensory awareness. |
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|
Term
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is changed? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate? |
|
Definition
Annotate date and time in a rhythm strip. |
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|
Term
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only: |
|
Definition
When local protocol authorizes it. |
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|
Term
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide: |
|
Definition
Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen. |
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|
Term
As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if the is any blow above the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with: |
|
Definition
A significant mechanism of injury, and focus on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient. |
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|
Term
When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are your responsibilities asd an EMT at the scene of a hazmat incident? |
|
Definition
Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible. |
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|
Term
Which device is commonly used for a patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
I'd an individual walks into the medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask: |
|
Definition
What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device. |
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|
Term
If you're treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which acronym is used by an EMT in the field to describe a possible fracture? |
|
Definition
painful, swollen deformity (PSD) |
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|
Term
What classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contamination is possible? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first? |
|
Definition
If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type. |
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|
Term
In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process? |
|
Definition
| Patient's condition and the facility's policy. |
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|
Term
| What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit? |
|
Definition
| Obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. |
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|
Term
| Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 to 48 hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many pounds of baggage is allowed for a patient being aero-medically evacuated to another facility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the: |
|
Definition
| vital signs were not completed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet? |
|
Definition
| Circle the last accumulated total. |
|
|
Term
| Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Relative to the Nursing Process, what is a client goal? |
|
Definition
| A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. |
|
|
Term
| What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a significant impact on a patient's perceived quality of care and treatment? |
|
Definition
| Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff. |
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|
Term
| What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
| Reduces the chance of infection. |
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|
Term
| Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients? |
|
Definition
| Standing hamstring stretches. |
|
|
Term
| Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is whole blood normally supplied? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system? |
|
Definition
| Administration of narcotics. |
|
|
Term
| Ideally, in what position is the patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Orthopedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because: |
|
Definition
| Promotes flexion deformities of the hip. |
|
|
Term
| Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone? |
|
Definition
| Open reduction, external fixation. |
|
|
Term
| What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that his or her short leg cast feels tight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the: |
|
Definition
| The side of the brain that was traumatized. |
|
|
Term
| During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child? |
|
Definition
| You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child. |
|
|
Term
| When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient? |
|
Definition
| Cater to the patient's customs |
|
|
Term
| Which is a sign of Uremia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first stage of dying is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What affects an individual's feeling about themselves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight-of-ideas, and physical overactivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Your behavior and actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient? |
|
Definition
| As soon as the patient is admitted. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient? |
|
Definition
| Strengthening the patient's defenses. |
|
|
Term
| When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following except: |
|
Definition
| electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) |
|
|
Term
| What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child showing signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises? |
|
Definition
| Report the suspected abuse. |
|
|
Term
| What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse? |
|
Definition
| Spouse states it will never happen again. |
|
|
Term
| Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance? |
|
Definition
| Monitor vital signs and sustain life. |
|
|
Term
| For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to: |
|
Definition
| Begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay. |
|
|
Term
| When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile? |
|
Definition
| Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression. |
|
|
Term
| To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? |
|
Definition
| Maintain balance and prevent back hip, and leg strain |
|
|
Term
| To use internal girdle of support, you must: |
|
Definition
| Simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles. |
|
|
Term
| Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed? |
|
Definition
| Size and capabilities of the patient. |
|
|
Term
| When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient? |
|
Definition
| Lock the wheels on the bed. |
|
|
Term
| The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned: |
|
Definition
| At the head of the bed on the stretcher side. |
|
|
Term
| Which devices can be used to slide a patient from a bed to a stretcher? |
|
Definition
| Drawsheet and rollerboard. |
|
|
Term
| When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands? |
|
Definition
| Beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm. |
|
|
Term
| Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube? |
|
Definition
| Check the physician's orders. |
|
|
Term
| What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? |
|
Definition
| 90 degrees; 6 to 10 inches. |
|
|
Term
| During catheterization of a female patient, how many inches is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper weight is equal to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Colostomy irrigations are performed to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For patients using a nonrebreather mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What actions should you take when moving a patient on a venture mask? |
|
Definition
| Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival. |
|
|
Term
| What complications could occur to the patient following a thoracentesis? |
|
Definition
| Shock, bleeding and dyspnea. |
|
|
Term
| Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to: |
|
Definition
| re-expand a collapsed cavity. |
|
|
Term
| What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The physiological function that the heart sound S1 (lub) is associated with is: |
|
Definition
| Closure of the mitral valve and tricuspid valves. |
|
|
Term
| When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What position should the patient be placed in for a central venous pressure line in to the neck vein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are corneal abrasions detected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A burn is classified as moderate if it involves: |
|
Definition
| Full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface. |
|
|
Term
| When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is: |
|
Definition
| Management of the patient's airway. |
|
|
Term
| How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the proper sequence of debriding a wound? |
|
Definition
| Remove old dressing, don sterile gloves, wipe from the wound out. |
|
|
Term
| What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you apply moist heat? |
|
Definition
| Moisten a towel and place between heat application and patient. |
|
|
Term
| A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Out of several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration? |
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Definition
| Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician. |
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Term
| Which statement is considered not one of the patients' legal and ethical rights? |
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Definition
| Choose the method of administration. |
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Term
| What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error? |
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Definition
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Term
| How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order? |
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Definition
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Term
| What do many MTF's use to avoid errors when copying a drug order? |
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Definition
| Computer-generated product. |
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Term
| Drug administration is controlled primarily by: |
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Definition
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Term
| Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as: |
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Definition
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Term
| What law requires periodic inventory of all controlled substances? |
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Definition
| Controlled Substances Act. |
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Term
| As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored? |
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Definition
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Term
| Penicillin to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs? |
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Definition
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Term
| The process in which a drug is transported from site of entry to the circulatory system is known as: |
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Definition
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Term
| A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to: |
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Definition
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Term
| Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? |
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Definition
| Lower digestive system content. |
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Term
| Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action? |
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Definition
| Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action. |
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Term
| Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? |
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Definition
| Physician Desk Reference. |
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Term
| A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a: |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which element is not required on a medication order? |
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Definition
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Term
| Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except: |
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Definition
| For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day. |
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Term
| How many lbs are equal to 65kg? |
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Definition
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Term
| Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL. How many mL's of the Ancef will be given for each dose? |
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Definition
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Term
| Lt. Col Namara ordered a single dose of Phenergan 12.5mg to be administered IM to A!C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2ml pre-filled syringes. How many mL's would you administer? |
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Definition
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Term
| The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is: |
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Definition
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Term
| Name the parts of a needle: |
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Definition
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Term
| What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? |
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Definition
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Term
| To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? |
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Definition
| At the patient's bedside. |
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Term
| Which statement is a disadvantage oh inhalation medication? |
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Definition
| Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult. |
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Term
| When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to: |
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Definition
| prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. |
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Term
| Into what body cavity are otic medications administered? |
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Definition
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Term
| To administer ear drops to a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe: |
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Definition
| Down to straighten the canal. |
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Term
| Vaginal suppositories are: |
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Definition
| administered to combat infection. |
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Term
| When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which medication's primary action is pain relief? |
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Definition
| Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics. |
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Term
| Opioids are contraindicated with: |
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Definition
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Term
| Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of: |
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Definition
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Term
| Nonopioid analgesics are available: |
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Definition
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Term
| Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with: |
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Definition
| Curing joint dysfunctions. |
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Term
| A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is: |
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Definition
| A depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep. |
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Term
| Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is not a side effect of tricyclics? |
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Definition
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Term
| Anti-anxiety medications are prescribed for: |
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Definition
| The treatment of insomnia. |
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Term
| Anti-psychotic medications are categorized as: |
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Definition
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Term
| Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines anti-psychotic medications is a result of: |
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Definition
| Blocking dopamine receptors. |
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Term
| Which pulse point should be checked before administration of digitalis? |
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Definition
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Term
| Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except: |
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Definition
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Term
| Adrenergic blockers used in low doses for patients with: |
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Definition
| Lung conditions that cause bronchospasm. |
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Term
| Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with: |
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Definition
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Term
| The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction is: |
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Definition
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Term
| Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to: |
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Definition
| maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion. |
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Term
| What is the most common side effect of anti-hypertensives? |
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Definition
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Term
| When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced? |
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Definition
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Term
| Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with: |
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Definition
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Term
| ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by: |
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Definition
| Decreasing vasoconstriction |
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Term
| What is the primary side effect of central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors? |
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Definition
| Sodium and water retention. |
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Term
| What antidote is administered for serious bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy? |
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Definition
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Term
| Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection? |
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Definition
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Term
| While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin: |
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Definition
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Term
| The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is: |
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Definition
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Term
| Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have a common side effect of? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a potential side effect when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect to the gastrointestinal tract? |
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Definition
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Term
| Cathartics are categorized as: |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of laxative is sorbitol? |
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Definition
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Term
| When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered? |
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Definition
| 30 minutes before expected motion. |
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Term
| Among the endocrine medications; what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection? |
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Definition
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Term
| A major contributor of young children developing type II diabetes is: |
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Definition
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Term
| With type I diabetes, the pancreas: |
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Definition
| Is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar. |
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Term
| Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with: |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications? |
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Definition
| Increase the insulin production of the pancreas and better peripheral insulin activity. |
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Term
| Aminoglycosides are used for: |
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Definition
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Term
| Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely allergic to: |
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Definition
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Term
| When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control? |
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Definition
| Use a back up method of birth control while taking the penicillin. |
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Term
| If after 5 days of penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate? |
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Definition
| Add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes. |
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Term
| Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products? |
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Definition
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Term
| Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of: |
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Definition
| Contaminated food or water. |
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Term
| Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force? |
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Definition
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Term
| What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa? |
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Definition
| Yellow Fever and Typhoid. |
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Term
| Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated by 1972 and in the early 2000's the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen? |
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Definition
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Term
| What patient education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing? |
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Definition
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Term
| What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines and sedative-hypnotic drugs? |
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Definition
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