1. (201) Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portablility and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and

a. Insurance Claims Amendments.

b. Disability of Americans Amendments.

c. Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments.

d. Medical Release of Information Amendments.

1. (201) Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portablility and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and

a. Insurance Claims Amendments.

b. Disability of Americans Amendments.

c. Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments.

d. Medical Release of Information Amendments.

2. (201) Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?

a. Drug and alcohol.

b. Adoptions and abortions.

c. Sexual assault and abuse.

d. Child molestation and endangerment.

2. (201) Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?

a. Drug and alcohol.

b. Adoptions and abortions.

c. Sexual assault and abuse.

d. Child molestation and endangerment.

3. (202) Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband’s medical record information to an insurance company?

a. No consent necessary for member’s own insurance company.

b. Verbal consent from the husband.

c. Written consent from husband.

d. Verbal consent from wife.

3. (202) Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband’s medical record information to an insurance company?

a. No consent necessary for member’s own insurance company.

b. Verbal consent from the husband.

c. Written consent from husband.

d. Verbal consent from wife.

4. (203) If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,

a. only release the information to the staff judge advocate (SJA).

b. release a copy of the record to the next of kin (NOK).

c. send the record to the military treatment facility (MTF) commander or his designee

d. only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

4. (203) If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,

a. only release the information to the staff judge advocate (SJA).

b. release a copy of the record to the next of kin (NOK).

c. send the record to the military treatment facility (MTF) commander or his designee

d. only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

5. (203) An individual’s medical record information is not released to medical research or scientific organizations when

a. the information concerns patients treated in a medical treatment facility (MTF) within the past five-years.

b. reproducing the information would be a burden or it is contrary to existing laws.

c. the patient does not want his or her records released.

d. the request concerns active duty members.

5. (203) An individual’s medical record information is not released to medical research or scientific organizations when

a. the information concerns patients treated in a medical treatment facility (MTF) within the past five-years.

b. reproducing the information would be a burden or it is contrary to existing laws.

c. the patient does not want his or her records released.

d. the request concerns active duty members.

6. (204) The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) allows military treatment facility (MTF) personnel to track patient care and

a. ICDM–9 (automated coding).

b. related administrative activities.

c. AF Forms 542, Subsistence Stock Records.

d. War Reserve Material (WRM) requirements.

6. (204) The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) allows military treatment facility (MTF) personnel to track patient care and

a. ICDM–9 (automated coding).

b. related administrative activities.

c. AF Forms 542, Subsistence Stock Records.

d. War Reserve Material (WRM) requirements.

7. (204) What two purposes does the user record serve?

a. Allows access to the system and lets the system know who you are.

b. Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system.

c. Allows you access to the system and establishes how you can use the system.

d. Establishes how you can use the system and ensures your actions are noted by the system audit mechanism.

7. (204) What two purposes does the user record serve?

a. Allows access to the system and lets the system know who you are.

b. Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system.

c. Allows you access to the system and establishes how you can use the system.

d. Establishes how you can use the system and ensures your actions are noted by the system audit mechanism.

8. (204) Which of the following is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

a. ???.

b. OLUM.

c. ??OLUM.

d. ?OPTION.

8. (204) Which of the following is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

a. ???.

b. OLUM.

c. ??OLUM.

d. ?OPTION.

9. (205) To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System?

a. Accomplish a “Patient lookup”.

b. Access On Line User’s Manual by entering ??OLUM.

c. Create medical record using post registration options.

d. Compare patient documentation with a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS)RIP from military personnel flight (MPF).

9. (205) To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System?

a. Accomplish a “Patient lookup”.

b. Access On Line User’s Manual by entering ??OLUM.

c. Create medical record using post registration options.

d. Compare patient documentation with a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS)RIP from military personnel flight (MPF).

10. (205) What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a Fileman access code?

a. Registering a spouse whose sponsor has already been registered.

b. Making a system inquiry concerning upcoming appointments.

c. Updating a home address for an active duty member.

d. Running (printing) a pull list.

10. (205) What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a Fileman access code?

a. Registering a spouse whose sponsor has already been registered.

b. Making a system inquiry concerning upcoming appointments.

c. Updating a home address for an active duty member.

d. Running (printing) a pull list.

11. (205) Which example shows the correct way to enter a patient’s name during Composite Health Care System (CHCS) Registration?

a. Lastname(space)(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).

b. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).

c. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial.

d. Lastname(space)First Initial.

11. (205) Which example shows the correct way to enter a patient’s name during Composite Health Care System (CHCS) Registration?

a. Lastname(space)(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).

b. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).

c. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial.

d. Lastname(space)First Initial.

12. (205) A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) to accomplish what task?

a. Verify the patient’s eligibility for care.

b. Ensure the patient’s CHCS data is comparable to his or her DEERS data.

c. Provide a tool for commander’s to keep abreast of unit’s manning strength.

d. Provides interface for military personnel flight (MPF) to update active duty information.

12. (205) A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) to accomplish what task?

a. Verify the patient’s eligibility for care.

b. Ensure the patient’s CHCS data is comparable to his or her DEERS data.

c. Provide a tool for commander’s to keep abreast of unit’s manning strength.

d. Provides interface for military personnel flight (MPF) to update active duty information.

13. (206) What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the check-in record option?

a. Clinic returning record.

b. Provider who checked-out the record.

c. Date and time of record being returned.

d. Highlights records charged-out more than 72-hours.

13. (206) What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the check-in record option?

a. Clinic returning record.

b. Provider who checked-out the record.

c. Date and time of record being returned.

d. Highlights records charged-out more than 72-hours.

14. (207) Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) component is a pattern of timeslots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?

a. Capacity appointment slots.

b. Template.

c. Schedule.

d. Profile.

14. (207) Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) component is a pattern of timeslots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?

a. Capacity appointment slots.

b. Template.

c. Schedule.

d. Profile.

15. (207) What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider’s schedule in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

a. Profile first, template second, and schedule last.

b. Template first, profile second, and schedule last.

c. Schedule first, template second, and profile last.

d. Schedule first, profile second, and template last.

15. (207) What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider’s schedule in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

a. Profile first, template second, and schedule last.

b. Template first, profile second, and schedule last.

c. Schedule first, template second, and profile last.

d. Schedule first, profile second, and template last.

16. (208) What Composite Health Care System (CHCS) option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider’s schedule?

a. Maintain/Cancel Schedule.

b. Cancellation by Facility.

c. Freeze/Release Schedule.

d. Modify/Add/Delete Schedule.

16. (208) What Composite Health Care System (CHCS) option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider’s schedule?

a. Maintain/Cancel Schedule.

b. Cancellation by Facility.

c. Freeze/Release Schedule.

d. Modify/Add/Delete Schedule.

17. (208) The schedule hold duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) defines how much time will elapse before

a. the system automatically freezes slots.

b. the system automatically releases frozen slots.

c. the appointment technician can manually freeze slots.

d. the appointment technician can manually release frozen slots.

17. (208) The schedule hold duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) defines how much time will elapse before

a. the system automatically freezes slots.

b. the system automatically releases frozen slots.

c. the appointment technician can manually freeze slots.

d. the appointment technician can manually release frozen slots.

18. (209) Where is the medical records tracking (MRT) label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?

a. Back cover, in the status box in the center of the record jacket.

b. Front cover, in the patient identification block.

c. Back cover, in the lower right hand corner.

d. Front cover, in the lower left hand corner.

18. (209) Where is the medical records tracking (MRT) label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?

a. Back cover, in the status box in the center of the record jacket.

b. Front cover, in the patient identification block.

c. Back cover, in the lower right hand corner.

d. Front cover, in the lower left hand corner.

19. (209) If a sponsor with two children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10), the step child’s family member prefix (FMP) will be

a. 01.

b. 03.

c. 60.

d. 90.

19. (209) If a sponsor with two children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10), the step child’s family member prefix (FMP) will be

a. 01.

b. 03.

c. 60.

d. 90.

20. (209) If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse’s family member prefix (FMP) will be

a. 20.

b. 21.

c. 30.

d. 31.

20. (209) If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse’s family member prefix (FMP) will be

a. 20.

b. 21.

c. 30.

d. 31.

21. (209) Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987–65–4321?

a. 4.

b. 3.

c. 2.

d. 1.

21. (209) Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987–65–4321?

a. 4.

b. 3.

c. 2.

d. 1.

22. (209) Where is allergy information displayed on a patient’s health record?

a. Below the “Food Handler” line on the bottom left hand corner of the record jacket.

b. Above the patient’s name, in the patient identification block.

c. Anywhere on the front cover of the record jacket in red ink.

d. Under the patient identification block of the record jacket.

22. (209) Where is allergy information displayed on a patient’s health record?

a. Below the “Food Handler” line on the bottom left hand corner of the record jacket.

b. Above the patient’s name, in the patient identification block.

c. Anywhere on the front cover of the record jacket in red ink.

d. Under the patient identification block of the record jacket.

23. (210) What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required minimum identification documentation?

a. Place the documentation in the research file.

b. Annotate the correct identification to save time.

c. Return documents to the originating clinic for proper completion.

d. Annotate identification and then call clinic personnel to brief proper requirements.

23. (210) What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required minimum identification documentation?

a. Place the documentation in the research file.

b. Annotate the correct identification to save time.

c. Return documents to the originating clinic for proper completion.

d. Annotate identification and then call clinic personnel to brief proper requirements.

24. (210) Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient?

a. Section 1.

b. Section 2.

c. Section 3.

d. Section 4.

24. (210) Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient?

a. Section 1.

b. Section 2.

c. Section 3.

d. Section 4.

25. (210) In which section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement filed?

a. Section 1.

b. Section 2.

c. Section 3.

d. Section 4.

25. (210) In which section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement filed?

a. Section 1.

b. Section 2.

c. Section 3.

d. Section 4.

26. (210) Which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, are living wills (Self- Determination Act forms) filed?

a. Section 1.

b. Section 2.

c. Section 3.

d. Section 4.

26. (210) Which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, are living wills (Self- Determination Act forms) filed?

a. Section 1.

b. Section 2.

c. Section 3.

d. Section 4.

27. (210) Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?

a. No notation is required, as long as it is returned to the outpatient record.

b. On SF 600, Health Record—Chronological Record of Medical Care.

c. On AF Form 1480, Summary of Care, in the outpatient record.

27. (210) Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?

a. No notation is required, as long as it is returned to the outpatient record.

b. On SF 600, Health Record—Chronological Record of Medical Care.

c. On AF Form 1480, Summary of Care, in the outpatient record.

28. (211) Outpatient records are the property of the

a. United States Government.

b. medical treatment facility.

c. records custodian.

d. patient.

28. (211) Outpatient records are the property of the

a. United States Government.

b. medical treatment facility.

c. records custodian.

d. patient.

29. (211) Which statement best describes the outpatient records filing system?

a. Tertiary number, color-coded and blocked filing system.

b. Terminal digit, color-coded and blocked filing system.

c. Tertiary number filing system.

d. Terminal digit filing.

29. (211) Which statement best describes the outpatient records filing system?

a. Tertiary number, color-coded and blocked filing system.

b. Terminal digit, color-coded and blocked filing system.

c. Tertiary number filing system.

d. Terminal digit filing.

30. (211) A properly developed and maintained terminal digit (color-coded and blocked) filing system makes it easier to

a. group records according to primary borrower.

b. file the forms in an outpatient record.

c. identify a misfiled record.

d. distribute the workload.

30. (211) A properly developed and maintained terminal digit (color-coded and blocked) filing system makes it easier to

a. group records according to primary borrower.

b. file the forms in an outpatient record.

c. identify a misfiled record.

d. distribute the workload.

31. (212) If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to change the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?

a. The clinic that originally transferred the record.

b. The clinic receiving the transferred record.

c. Outpatient records personnel.

d. The patient.

31. (212) If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to change the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?

a. The clinic that originally transferred the record.

b. The clinic receiving the transferred record.

c. Outpatient records personnel.

d. The patient.

32. (213) How often are active duty records inventoried?

a. Never, if the facility has CHCS.

b. At least semiannually.

c. Whenever necessary.

d. At least once a year.

32. (213) How often are active duty records inventoried?

a. Never, if the facility has CHCS.

b. At least semiannually.

c. Whenever necessary.

d. At least once a year.

33. (213) When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military members retired?

a. End of each calendar year.

b. End of each fiscal year.

c. Semiannually.

d. Quarterly.

33. (213) When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military members retired?

a. End of each calendar year.

b. End of each fiscal year.

c. Semiannually.

d. Quarterly.

34. (213) What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?

a. Military Record Tracking, Retirement, and Retrieval Users Guide (MRTR2).

b. AFI 37–138, Records Disposition Policies and Procedures.

c. AFMAN 37–139, Records Disposition Schedule.

d. Records retirement list.

34. (213) What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?

a. Military Record Tracking, Retirement, and Retrieval Users Guide (MRTR2).

b. AFI 37–138, Records Disposition Policies and Procedures.

c. AFMAN 37–139, Records Disposition Schedule.

d. Records retirement list.

35. (214) What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?

a. TRICARE team.

b. Alternative care team.

c. Health care optimization team.

d. Primary care optimization team.

35. (214) What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?

a. TRICARE team.

b. Alternative care team.

c. Health care optimization team.

d. Primary care optimization team.

36. (214) When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?

a. Acute care manager.

b. Health care manager.

c. Primary care manager.

d. Family practice manager.

36. (214) When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?

a. Acute care manager.

b. Health care manager.

c. Primary care manager.

d. Family practice manager.

37. (215) If for some reason the sponsor’s medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a

a. letter of non-availability.

b. letter of justification.

c. letter of reason.

d. waiver letter.

37. (215) If for some reason the sponsor’s medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a

a. letter of non-availability.

b. letter of justification.

c. letter of reason.

d. waiver letter.

38. (215) When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?

a. The sponsor.

b. The dependent.

c. The gaining unit.

d. The primary care manager.

38. (215) When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?

a. The sponsor.

b. The dependent.

c. The gaining unit.

d. The primary care manager.

39. (216) For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record?

a. Active duty personnel admitted to a non-Federal hospital.

b. Patients admitted and dispositioned on the same day.

c. Patients admitted to a tactical medical facility.

d. Stillbirths.

39. (216) For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record?

a. Active duty personnel admitted to a non-Federal hospital.

b. Patients admitted and dispositioned on the same day.

c. Patients admitted to a tactical medical facility.

d. Stillbirths.

40. (216) The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?

a. Terminal digit (by patient’s inpatient register number).

b. Terminal digit (by sponsor’s social security number).

c. Numerically, by inpatient unit.

d. Alphabetically, by inpatient unit.

40. (216) The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?

a. Terminal digit (by patient’s inpatient register number).

b. Terminal digit (by sponsor’s social security number).

c. Numerically, by inpatient unit.

d. Alphabetically, by inpatient unit.

41. (216) Who prepares AF form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation?

a. Unit inpatient records technician.

b. Inpatient records section technician.

c. Admission and disposition technician.

d. Military personnel flight (MPF) personnel during basic military training.

41. (216) Who prepares AF form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation?

a. Unit inpatient records technician.

b. Inpatient records section technician.

c. Admission and disposition technician.

d. Military personnel flight (MPF) personnel during basic military training.

42. (217) A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record—Narrative Summary, for

a. all inpatients unless treated by a tactical medical treatment facility.

b. patients remaining in the hospital as bed occupants for 48 hours or less.

c. inpatients received by transfer for further treatment.

d. cases involving communicable diseases.

42. (217) A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record—Narrative Summary, for

a. all inpatients unless treated by a tactical medical treatment facility.

b. patients remaining in the hospital as bed occupants for 48 hours or less.

c. inpatients received by transfer for further treatment.

d. cases involving communicable diseases.

43. (217) Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except

a. patients with minor problems requiring less than a 48-hour stay.

b. uncomplicated obstetrical deliveries.

c. patients treated at a tactical military treatment facility (MTF).

d. normal newborn infants.

43. (217) Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except

a. patients with minor problems requiring less than a 48-hour stay.

b. uncomplicated obstetrical deliveries.

c. patients treated at a tactical military treatment facility (MTF).

d. normal newborn infants.

44. (218) How are fetal monitor strips filed?

a. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with outpatient medical records.

b. In SSN terminal digit order the same as inpatient records.

c. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with inpatient records.

d. In alphabetical order.

44. (218) How are fetal monitor strips filed?

a. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with outpatient medical records.

b. In SSN terminal digit order the same as inpatient records.

c. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with inpatient records.

d. In alphabetical order.

45. (218) An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is

a. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2001.

b. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2003.

c. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004.

d. never retired as long as the patient remains on active duty.

45. (218) An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is

a. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2001.

b. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2003.

c. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004.

d. never retired as long as the patient remains on active duty.

46. (219) Routine care is usually not provided to patients with questionable eligibility until the

a. patient provides other identification.

b. patient provides proof of insurance.

c. patient’s eligibility is determined.

d. patient pays for treatment.

46. (219) Routine care is usually not provided to patients with questionable eligibility until the

a. patient provides other identification.

b. patient provides proof of insurance.

c. patient’s eligibility is determined.

d. patient pays for treatment.

47. (219) Which patient would still receive routine medical care, even if they failed a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) eligibility check?

a. A patient issued an identification card within the last 120 days.

b. A patient issued an identification card within the last 60 days.

c. A patient returned from overseas within the last 120 days.

d. A returned from overseas within the last 60 days.

47. (219) Which patient would still receive routine medical care, even if they failed a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) eligibility check?

a. A patient issued an identification card within the last 120 days.

b. A patient issued an identification card within the last 60 days.

c. A patient returned from overseas within the last 120 days.

d. A returned from overseas within the last 60 days.

48. (219) After the risk assessment, what determines if a patient with questionable eligibility is treated in the military treatment facility?

a. If it is determined that the patient has sufficient insurance.

b. If there is a possibility of risk to the Air Force or patient.

c. If the patient has other forms of identification.

d. If the patient need only minimal medical care.

48. (219) After the risk assessment, what determines if a patient with questionable eligibility is treated in the military treatment facility?

a. If it is determined that the patient has sufficient insurance.

b. If there is a possibility of risk to the Air Force or patient.

c. If the patient has other forms of identification.

d. If the patient need only minimal medical care.

49. (220) What is the final step of completing the quarters notification form?

a. Establish a follow up appointment.

b. Fax/e-mail a copy to the member’s unit.

c. Update medical treatment facility (MTF) records.

d. Update the member’s duty status in the Military Personnel Data System(MilPDS).

49. (220) What is the final step of completing the quarters notification form?

a. Establish a follow up appointment.

b. Fax/e-mail a copy to the member’s unit.

c. Update medical treatment facility (MTF) records.

d. Update the member’s duty status in the Military Personnel Data System(MilPDS).

50. (221) A Secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered and

a. the specific provider who will follow the designee.

b. the specific primary care optimization team the designee is assigned to.

c. determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation.

d. confirmation that the designee is either a TRICARE prime, extra or standard member.

50. (221) A Secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered and

a. the specific provider who will follow the designee.

b. the specific primary care optimization team the designee is assigned to.

c. determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation.

d. confirmation that the designee is either a TRICARE prime, extra or standard member.

51. (221) When can patients request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force designee status?

a. The Judge Advocate General determines that continued status may thwart possible litigation.

b. A teaching case that is still producing benefits for the Air Force residency program.

c. Military treatment facility commander approves the continuation.

d. Continued care is still necessary.

51. (221) When can patients request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force designee status?

a. The Judge Advocate General determines that continued status may thwart possible litigation.

b. A teaching case that is still producing benefits for the Air Force residency program.

c. Military treatment facility commander approves the continuation.

d. Continued care is still necessary.

52. (221) When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the

a. medical group commander.

b. Secretary of the Air Force.

c. wing commander.

d. unit commander.

52. (221) When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the

a. medical group commander.

b. Secretary of the Air Force.

c. wing commander.

d. unit commander.

53. (221) Generally how are the applications for designee status submitted?

a. Through the command surgeon general’s office to HQUSAF/SGMA.

b. Through the wing commander to the command surgeon general’s office.

c. Through the military treatment facility commander to HQUSAF/SGMA.

d. Through the chief of hospital or clinic services to the command surgeon’s office.

53. (221) Generally how are the applications for designee status submitted?

a. Through the command surgeon general’s office to HQUSAF/SGMA.

b. Through the wing commander to the command surgeon general’s office.

c. Through the military treatment facility commander to HQUSAF/SGMA.

d. Through the chief of hospital or clinic services to the command surgeon’s office.

54. (222) Which of the following is not part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process?

a. Identify active duty service members with family members with special educational needs.

b. Locates providers and establishes the consults for care.

c. Help families obtain information on required services.

d. Ensures access to necessary services if reassigned.

54. (222) Which of the following is not part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process?

a. Identify active duty service members with family members with special educational needs.

b. Locates providers and establishes the consults for care.

c. Help families obtain information on required services.

d. Ensures access to necessary services if reassigned.

55. (222) For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the

a. military training facility (MTF) in closest proximity to the family.

b. military personnel flight (MPF) in closest proximity to the family.

c. MTF in closest proximity to the member.

d. MPF in closest proximity to the member.

55. (222) For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the

a. military training facility (MTF) in closest proximity to the family.

b. military personnel flight (MPF) in closest proximity to the family.

c. MTF in closest proximity to the member.

d. MPF in closest proximity to the member.

56. (223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?

a. Office of Personnel Management.

b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs.

c. Department of Labor.

d. Air Force.

56. (223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?

a. Office of Personnel Management.

b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs.

c. Department of Labor.

d. Air Force.

57. (223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?

a. Office of Personnel Management.

b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs.

c. Department of Labor.

d. Air Force.

57. (223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?

a. Office of Personnel Management.

b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs.

c. Department of Labor.

d. Air Force.

58. (223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to evaluate the eligibility of an Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training?

a. Office of Personnel Management.

b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs.

c. Department of Labor.

d. Air Force.

58. (223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to evaluate the eligibility of an Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training?

a. Office of Personnel Management.

b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs.

c. Department of Labor.

d. Air Force.

59. (224) The three types of line of duty determinations are informal, formal, and

a. administrative.

b. associative.

c. disease/injury.

d. general.

59. (224) The three types of line of duty determinations are informal, formal, and

a. administrative.

b. associative.

c. disease/injury.

d. general.

60. (224) The interim line of duty (LOD) for reserve members is valid for no more than how many days?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90.

d. 180.

60. (224) The interim line of duty (LOD) for reserve members is valid for no more than how many days?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90.

d. 180.

61. (224) If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative line of duty (LOD) is more appropriate after an AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the military personnel flight (MPF)/DFMPEP to the

a. appointing authority.

b. investigating officer.

c. unit commander.

d. LOD-MFP.

61. (224) If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative line of duty (LOD) is more appropriate after an AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the military personnel flight (MPF)/DFMPEP to the

a. appointing authority.

b. investigating officer.

c. unit commander.

d. LOD-MFP.

62. (224) The only individual who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of line of duty (LOD) findings is the

a. investigating authority.

b. staff judge advocate.

c. approval authority.

d. unit commander.

62. (224) The only individual who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of line of duty (LOD) findings is the

a. investigating authority.

b. staff judge advocate.

c. approval authority.

d. unit commander.

63. (225) Who is held financially accountable for care regardless of where it is delivered?

a. Nurse.

b. Member.

c. Supervisor.

d. Military treatment facility (MTF) commander.

63. (225) Who is held financially accountable for care regardless of where it is delivered?

a. Nurse.

b. Member.

c. Supervisor.

d. Military treatment facility (MTF) commander.

64. (225) Who pays for claims for network care by military treatment facility (MTF) enrolled patients?

a. MCSC.

b. TRICARE.

c. RMC.

d. PAD.

64. (225) Who pays for claims for network care by military treatment facility (MTF) enrolled patients?

a. MCSC.

b. TRICARE.

c. RMC.

d. PAD.

65. (226) Which office is the “one stop shop” where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM?

a. TRICARE.

b. Family practice.

c. Referral management center.

d. Resource management office.

65. (226) Which office is the “one stop shop” where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM?

a. TRICARE.

b. Family practice.

c. Referral management center.

d. Resource management office.

66. (227) A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but dies prior to admission is considered

a. an emergency room death.

b. a carded for record only.

c. a dead on arrival.

d. an outpatient.

66. (227) A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but dies prior to admission is considered

a. an emergency room death.

b. a carded for record only.

c. a dead on arrival.

d. an outpatient.

67. (227) For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accept administrative responsibility?

a. Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.

b. Temporary Duty Retirement Listing (TDRL) patient admitted to a civilian facility.

c. A retired Master Sergeant when referred to a civilian facility in the local area.

d. A civilian emergency care patient admitted to the Air Force MTF.

67. (227) For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accept administrative responsibility?

a. Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.

b. Temporary Duty Retirement Listing (TDRL) patient admitted to a civilian facility.

c. A retired Master Sergeant when referred to a civilian facility in the local area.

d. A civilian emergency care patient admitted to the Air Force MTF.

68. (227) Patient register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence

a. until the facility is closed down.

b. on a calendar year basis.

c. based on local policy.

d. on a fiscal year basis.

68. (227) Patient register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence

a. until the facility is closed down.

b. on a calendar year basis.

c. based on local policy.

d. on a fiscal year basis.

69. (228) When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of an AF Form 560?

a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office.

b. Admissions technician.

c. Attending physician.

d. Head nurse.

69. (228) When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of an AF Form 560?

a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office.

b. Admissions technician.

c. Attending physician.

d. Head nurse.

70. (228) Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?

a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office.

b. Admitting physician.

c. Admissions clerk.

d. Charge nurse.

70. (228) Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?

a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office.

b. Admitting physician.

c. Admissions clerk.

d. Charge nurse.

71. (228) Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (Current Organization) of AF Form560?

a. Son, USAF E7 (Ret).

b. Civilian emergency.

c. AD E6 OSI Agent.

d. Wife, AD AF 0–3.

71. (228) Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (Current Organization) of AF Form560?

a. Son, USAF E7 (Ret).

b. Civilian emergency.

c. AD E6 OSI Agent.

d. Wife, AD AF 0–3.

72. (229) Use the inter ward transfer Composite Health Care System (CHCS) function to

a. move a patient from one unit to another within the military treatment facility (MTF).

b. update a remaining overnight (RON) patient’s location.

c. move a patient from one MTF to another MTF.

d. correct a previous ward assignment error.

72. (229) Use the inter ward transfer Composite Health Care System (CHCS) function to

a. move a patient from one unit to another within the military treatment facility (MTF).

b. update a remaining overnight (RON) patient’s location.

c. move a patient from one MTF to another MTF.

d. correct a previous ward assignment error.

73. (229) Composite Health Care System (CHCS) reports designed for a specific purpose by military treatment facility (MTF) personnel are called

a. special reports.

b. AD HOC reports.

c. customized reports.

d. Patient Administration Directory (PAD) reports.

73. (229) Composite Health Care System (CHCS) reports designed for a specific purpose by military treatment facility (MTF) personnel are called

a. special reports.

b. AD HOC reports.

c. customized reports.

d. Patient Administration Directory (PAD) reports.

74. (229) A Composite Health Care System (CHCS) admission notification letter is generated each time

a. a patient with private insurance is admitted to the military treatment facility(MTF).

b. an active duty patient is admitted to the MTF.

c. an SI/VSI or III patient admitted to the MTF.

d. an 0–6 or above is admitted to the MTF.

74. (229) A Composite Health Care System (CHCS) admission notification letter is generated each time

a. a patient with private insurance is admitted to the military treatment facility(MTF).

b. an active duty patient is admitted to the MTF.

c. an SI/VSI or III patient admitted to the MTF.

d. an 0–6 or above is admitted to the MTF.

75. (229) The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of

a. admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers.

b. all transactions taking place in the admissions and dispositions (A&D) office.

c. admissions, dispositions, and newborns only.

d. admissions and dispositions only.

75. (229) The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of

a. admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers.

b. all transactions taking place in the admissions and dispositions (A&D) office.

c. admissions, dispositions, and newborns only.

d. admissions and dispositions only.

76. (230) Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?

a. AF Form 560.

b. AF Form 577.

c. The outpatient record.

d. Patient suspense file.

76. (230) Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?

a. AF Form 560.

b. AF Form 577.

c. The outpatient record.

d. Patient suspense file.

77. (230) What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient?

a. Inpatient record.

b. Patient control file.

c. Patient suspense file.

d. Master index of patients.

77. (230) What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient?

a. Inpatient record.

b. Patient control file.

c. Patient suspense file.

d. Master index of patients.

78. (231) When a military patient is admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF), the patient’s unit commander should be notified by

a. admission notification letter and telephone or priority message.

b. electronic message or telephone.

c. admission notification letter only.

d. telephone only.

78. (231) When a military patient is admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF), the patient’s unit commander should be notified by

a. admission notification letter and telephone or priority message.

b. electronic message or telephone.

c. admission notification letter only.

d. telephone only.

79. (231) When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Immediately, following admission.

b. When requested by the flag officer.

c. By 0600 hours eastern standard time following admission.

d. When expected hospital stay is more than seven days.

79. (231) When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Immediately, following admission.

b. When requested by the flag officer.

c. By 0600 hours eastern standard time following admission.

d. When expected hospital stay is more than seven days.

80. (232) An inventory of patient valuables is conducted

a. annually.

b. quarterly.

c. monthly.

d. daily.

80. (232) An inventory of patient valuables is conducted

a. annually.

b. quarterly.

c. monthly.

d. daily.

81. (232) Which of the following individuals would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?

a. Staff Sergeant Jones, NCOIC, outpatient records.

b. Captain Smith, director, medical logistics.

c. Senior Airman Hill, pharmacy technician.

d. Mrs. Lee (GS–6), DBMS’ secretary.

81. (232) Which of the following individuals would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?

a. Staff Sergeant Jones, NCOIC, outpatient records.

b. Captain Smith, director, medical logistics.

c. Senior Airman Hill, pharmacy technician.

d. Mrs. Lee (GS–6), DBMS’ secretary.

82. (233) When a patient’s clearance is complete, the AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record, is turned into the

a. medical service account office.

b. disposition office.

c. clinical records.

d. inpatient unit.

82. (233) When a patient’s clearance is complete, the AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record, is turned into the

a. medical service account office.

b. disposition office.

c. clinical records.

d. inpatient unit.

83. (233) In which block of AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement, does the health care provider identify the surgical procedures performed during a patient’s hospitalization?

a. Block 33, Primary admission diagnosis.

b. Block 38, Diagnoses–Procedures.

c. Block 40, Administrative data.

d. Block 41, Disposition.

83. (233) In which block of AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement, does the health care provider identify the surgical procedures performed during a patient’s hospitalization?

a. Block 33, Primary admission diagnosis.

b. Block 38, Diagnoses–Procedures.

c. Block 40, Administrative data.

d. Block 41, Disposition.

84. (234) When a patient’s physical condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, the patient category reported is

a. Incapacitating illness or injury.

b. Very seriously ill.

c. Seriously ill.

d. Critically ill.

84. (234) When a patient’s physical condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, the patient category reported is

a. Incapacitating illness or injury.

b. Very seriously ill.

c. Seriously ill.

d. Critically ill.

85. (234) When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in a casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on

a. AF Form 1403, Roster of Seriously Ill/Very Seriously Ill.

b. the Composite Health Care System (CHCS).

c. AF Form 3066, Doctor’s Orders.

d. SF 509, Progress Notes.

85. (234) When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in a casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on

a. AF Form 1403, Roster of Seriously Ill/Very Seriously Ill.

b. the Composite Health Care System (CHCS).

c. AF Form 3066, Doctor’s Orders.

d. SF 509, Progress Notes.

86. (234) Which form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?

a. AF Form 1403.

b. AF Form 560.

c. AF Form 570.

d. SF 509.

86. (234) Which form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?

a. AF Form 1403.

b. AF Form 560.

c. AF Form 570.

d. SF 509.

87. (234) When a patient’s physician determines it medically advisable, each military branch may pay for the travel of the patient’s next of kin (NOK) for

a. terminally ill family members of active duty personnel.

b. SI, VSI, and III active duty military patients.

c. SI and VSI active duty military patients.

d. all military patients.

87. (234) When a patient’s physician determines it medically advisable, each military branch may pay for the travel of the patient’s next of kin (NOK) for

a. terminally ill family members of active duty personnel.

b. SI, VSI, and III active duty military patients.

c. SI and VSI active duty military patients.

d. all military patients.

88. (235) When must the military treatment facility (MTF) release a deceased patient’s remains to mortuary personnel?

a. Within 24 hours after death.

b. After a complete and thorough investigation has been conducted.

c. When approved by the medical group commander or a designated representative.

d. When approved by the wing commander or a designated representative.

88. (235) When must the military treatment facility (MTF) release a deceased patient’s remains to mortuary personnel?

a. Within 24 hours after death.

b. After a complete and thorough investigation has been conducted.

c. When approved by the medical group commander or a designated representative.

d. When approved by the wing commander or a designated representative.

89. (236) The minimum identification required on forms placed in the inpatient record includes the patient’s name, family member prefix (FMP), sponsor’s social security number, register number, and the

a. name of the military treatment facility (MTF).

b. name of the attending physician.

c. patient’s social security number.

d. inpatient unit.

89. (236) The minimum identification required on forms placed in the inpatient record includes the patient’s name, family member prefix (FMP), sponsor’s social security number, register number, and the

a. name of the military treatment facility (MTF).

b. name of the attending physician.

c. patient’s social security number.

d. inpatient unit.

90. (236) When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical examination?

a. Prior to admission to the inpatient unit.

b. Within 24 hours after admission.

c. Within 7 days of admission.

d. Prior to discharge.

90. (236) When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical examination?

a. Prior to admission to the inpatient unit.

b. Within 24 hours after admission.

c. Within 7 days of admission.

d. Prior to discharge.

91. (236) Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician’s instructions to the nursing staff?

a. SF 506.

b. SF 509.

c. SF 539.

d. AF Form 3066.

91. (236) Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician’s instructions to the nursing staff?

a. SF 506.

b. SF 509.

c. SF 539.

d. AF Form 3066.

92. (236) A provider’s verbal or telephone orders may be taken by

a. the unit inpatient records technician (UIRT) or nurse only.

b. a nurse or medical technician only.

c. anyone assigned to the ward.

d. a registered nurse only.

92. (236) A provider’s verbal or telephone orders may be taken by

a. the unit inpatient records technician (UIRT) or nurse only.

b. a nurse or medical technician only.

c. anyone assigned to the ward.

d. a registered nurse only.

93. (237) Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are

a. considered to be on “pass” until they return to the ward.

b. administratively discharged from the hospital.

c. reported to the sponsor’s commander.

d. considered AWOL.

93. (237) Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are

a. considered to be on “pass” until they return to the ward.

b. administratively discharged from the hospital.

c. reported to the sponsor’s commander.

d. considered AWOL.

94. (237) To monitor patient absences, use

a. updates on the inpatient unit nursing status board.

b. AF Form 569, Patient’s Absence Record.

c. notes on the AF Form 560.

d. a patient sign-out register.

94. (237) To monitor patient absences, use

a. updates on the inpatient unit nursing status board.

b. AF Form 569, Patient’s Absence Record.

c. notes on the AF Form 560.

d. a patient sign-out register.

95. (237) If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is

a. maintained on the ward until the patient returns to the ward or is discharged.

b. forwarded to the clinic for reference during follow-up outpatient visits.

c. forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file.

d. forwarded to the inpatient records section for coding and filing.

95. (237) If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is

.a. maintained on the ward until the patient returns to the ward or is discharged.

b. forwarded to the clinic for reference during follow-up outpatient visits.

c. forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file.

d. forwarded to the inpatient records section for coding and filing.

96. (237) Recommended convalescent leave must be approved by the

a. medical squadron section commander.

b. attending physician’s supervisor.

c. patient’s unit commander.

d. MDG/CC.

96. (237) Recommended convalescent leave must be approved by the

a. medical squadron section commander.

b. attending physician’s supervisor.

c. patient’s unit commander.

d. MDG/CC.

97. (238) Of the following, who may authorize a patient disposition?

a. Dentist.

b. Registered nurse.

c. Physician assistant.

d. Medical service corps officer.

97. (238) Of the following, who may authorize a patient disposition?

a. Dentist.

b. Registered nurse.

c. Physician assistant.

d. Medical service corps officer.

98. (238) What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. DOD policy.

b. Local policy.

c. Air Force policy.

d. Military personnel flight (MPF) policy.

98. (238) What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. DOD policy.

b. Local policy.

c. Air Force policy.

d. Military personnel flight (MPF) policy.

99. (239) Level 1 Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) are commonly referred to as

a. common procedure terminology.

b. common patient terminology.

c. current procedural terminology.

d. current patient terminology.

99. (239) Level 1 Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) are commonly referred to as

a. common procedure terminology.

b. common patient terminology.

c. current procedural terminology.

d. current patient terminology.

100. (239) What are the three key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the evaluation and management (E&M) codes?

a. History, test, and medical decision making.

b. History, physical, and decision making.

c. History, lab, and decision making.

d. History, examination, and medical decision making.

100. (239) What are the three key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the evaluation and management (E&M) codes?

a. History, test, and medical decision making.

b. History, physical, and decision making.

c. History, lab, and decision making.

d. History, examination, and medical decision making.

101. (240) What code set describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information?

a. Military Health Service System.

b. Current Procedural Terminology.

c. Evaluation and Management Codes.

d. International Classification of Diseases.

101. (240) What code set describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information?

a. Military Health Service System.

b. Current Procedural Terminology.

c. Evaluation and Management Codes.

d. International Classification of Diseases.

102. (240) How many years do category III codes remain in the Current Procedural Terminology Manual?

a. One

b. Three.

c. Five.

d. Seven.

102. (240) How many years do category III codes remain in the Current Procedural Terminology Manual?

a. One

b. Three.

c. Five.

d. Seven.

103. (241) All codes in the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification are:

a. alphanumeric.

b. numeric.

c. alpha.

d. either alpha or numeric.

103. (241) All codes in the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification are:

a. alphanumeric.

b. numeric.

c. alpha.

d. either alpha or numeric.

104. (242) According to the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification, what does a code beginning with the letter “E” mean?

a. There is no specific code in the classification system.

b. External causes of injury.

c. Type of examination.

d. Echovirus.

104. (242) According to the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification, what does a code beginning with the letter “E” mean?

a. There is no specific code in the classification system.

b. External causes of injury.

c. Type of examination.

d. Echovirus.