1. (001) What organizational principle focuses on accomplishing wartime tasks without reorganizing?

a. Standard levels.

b. Lean organizational.

c. Emphasis on wartime tasks.

d. Emphasis on wartime and peacetime tasks.

1. (001) What organizational principle focuses on accomplishing wartime tasks without reorganizing?

a. Standard levels.

b. Lean organizational.

c. Emphasis on wartime tasks.

d. Emphasis on wartime and peacetime tasks.

2. (001) What organizational principle focuses on rapid decision-making so they should be flat structures without intermediate levels?

a. Standard levels.

b. Lean organizational.

c. Emphasis on wartime tasks.

d. Emphasis on wartime and peacetime tasks.

2. (001) What organizational principle focuses on rapid decision-making so they should be flat structures without intermediate levels?

a. Standard levels.

b. Lean organizational.

c. Emphasis on wartime tasks.

d. Emphasis on wartime and peacetime tasks.

3. (001) The five organizational principles do not include

a. Standard levels.

b. Lean organizational.

c. Emphasis on wartime tasks.

d. Emphasis on wartime and peacetime tasks.

3. (001) The five organizational principles do not include

a. Standard levels.

b. Lean organizational.

c. Emphasis on wartime tasks.

d. Emphasis on wartime and peacetime tasks.

4. (002) What Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) objective focuses on the appropriate utilization of people and resources applied through effective management?

a. Readiness.

b. Better Care.

c. Better Health.

d. Best Value.

4. (002) What Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) objective focuses on the appropriate utilization of people and resources applied through effective management?

a. Readiness.

b. Better Care.

c. Better Health.

d. Best Value.

5. (003) What cannot be a subdivision of a wing?

a. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

b. Group.

c. Flight.

d. Squadron.

5. (003) What cannot be a subdivision of a wing?

a. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

b. Group.

c. Flight.

d. Squadron.

6. (003) What level of organization usually has between 1,000 to 5,000 personnel?

a. Flight.

b. Group.

c. Wing.

d. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

6. (003) What level of organization usually has between 1,000 to 5,000 personnel?

a. Flight.

b. Group.

c. Wing.

d. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

7. (003) What level of organization usually has between 500 to 2,000 personnel?

a. Flight.

b. Group.

c. Wing.

d. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

7. (003) What level of organization usually has between 500 to 2,000 personnel?

a. Flight.

b. Group.

c. Wing.

d. Numbered Air Force (NAF).

8. (004) Which option is not a type of military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Acute care.

b. Hospital.

c. Limited scope.

d. Medical squadron.

8. (004) Which option is not a type of military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Acute care.

b. Hospital.

c. Limited scope.

d. Medical squadron.

9. (004) What type of military treatment facility (MTF) can have from two to six squadrons?

a. Hospital.

b. Typical clinic model.

c. Medial squadron.

d. Limited scope.

9. (004) What type of military treatment facility (MTF) can have from two to six squadrons?

a. Hospital.

b. Typical clinic model.

c. Medial squadron.

d. Limited scope.

10. (004) What type treatment facility model is the most common in the Air Force?

a. Hospital.

b. Medical squadron.

c. Typical clinic model.

d. Limited scope military treatment facility.

10. (004) What type treatment facility model is the most common in the Air Force?

a. Hospital.

b. Medical squadron.

c. Typical clinic model.

d. Limited scope military treatment facility.

11. (004) When was the medical squadron model implemented?

a. 1 January 2012.

b. 1 January 2013.

c. 1 February 2012.

d. 1 February 2013.

11. (004) When was the medical squadron model implemented?

a. 1 January 2012.

b. 1 January 2013.

c. 1 February 2012.

d. 1 February 2013.

12. (004) What flight takes care of all the administrative needs for the medical squadron?

a. MIS.

b. P&A.

c. RMO.

d. TOPA.

12. (004) What flight takes care of all the administrative needs for the medical squadron?

a. MIS.

b. P&A.

c. RMO.

d. TOPA.

13. (004) What flight takes care of the manpower and budget for the medical squadron?

a. MIS.

b. P&A.

c. RMO.

d. TOPA.

13. (004) What flight takes care of the manpower and budget for the medical squadron?

a. MIS.

b. P&A.

c. RMO.

d. TOPA.

14. (005) What is an example of non-verbal communication?

a. Tone of voice.

b. Building rapport.

c. Making eye contact.

d. Choosing your words.

14. (005) What is an example of non-verbal communication?

.

a. Tone of voice.

b. Building rapport.

c. Making eye contact.

d. Choosing your words.

15. (005) What is the most important customer service skill?

a. Being attentive.

b. Paraphrasing.

c. Enunciating.

d. Listening.

15. (005) What is the most important customer service skill?

a. Being attentive.

b. Paraphrasing.

c. Enunciating.

d. Listening.

16. (005) What shows the customer how you interpreted the problem and gives them a chance to clear

up any confusion so you can take proper action?

a. Enunciation.

b. Paraphrase.

c. Attention.

d. Listening.

16. (005) What shows the customer how you interpreted the problem and gives them a chance to clear

up any confusion so you can take proper action?

a. Enunciation.

b. Paraphrase.

c. Attention.

d. Listening.

17. (005) What is the appropriate response when calling another office?

a. “Hi, This is Amn Smith from Outpatient records, I’m calling….”

b. “Good day, This is Amn Smith, I’m calling….”

c. “Good day, I’m calling…”.

d. “Howdy, I’m calling…”.

17. (005) What is the appropriate response when calling another office?

a. “Hi, This is Amn Smith from Outpatient records, I’m calling….”

b. “Good day, This is Amn Smith, I’m calling….”

c. “Good day, I’m calling…”.

d. “Howdy, I’m calling…”.

18. (006) What is the step after creating an outline?

a. Determine the purpose.

b. Identify the receiver.

c. Choose wording.

d. Select a format.

18. (006) What is the step after creating an outline?

a. Determine the purpose.

b. Identify the receiver.

c. Choose wording.

d. Select a format.

19. (006) During the editing process, addressing phrases such as: final completion, month of August, or close proximity, is an example of

a. Technical accuracy/coverage.

b. Remove unnecessary words.

c. Arrangement.

d. Active voice.

19. (006) During the editing process, addressing phrases such as: final completion, month of August, or close proximity, is an example of

a. Technical accuracy/coverage.

b. Remove unnecessary words.

c. Arrangement.

d. Active voice.

20. (007) AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet does all of the following, except

a. Coordinates.

b. Distributes.

c. Introduces.

d. Summarizes.

20. (007) AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet does all of the following, except

a. Coordinates.

b. Distributes.

c. Introduces.

d. Summarizes.

21. (008) Who maintains various checklists relating to inspectable areas?

a. AFIA.

b. AFMSA.

c. AFMOA.

d. MAJCOM.

21. (008) Who maintains various checklists relating to inspectable areas?

a. AFIA.

b. AFMSA.

c. AFMOA.

d. MAJCOM.

22. (008) What is the automated self-inspection tool the AFMS MTFs use?

a. AAAHC.

b. MITC.

c. TJC.

d. UEI.

22. (008) What is the automated self-inspection tool the AFMS MTFs use?

a. AAAHC.

b. MITC.

c. TJC.

d. UEI.

23. (009) What are examples of internal memory?

a. CMOS, RAM, ROM, CM.

b. CMOS, CD, ROM, CM.

c. RAM, USB, CM, DVD.

d. RAM, ROM, USB, CD.

23. (009) What are examples of internal memory?

a. CMOS, RAM, ROM, CM.

b. CMOS, CD, ROM, CM.

c. RAM, USB, CM, DVD.

d. RAM, ROM, USB, CD.

24. (009) The following are all types of servers except

a. Print.

b. Word.

c. Database.

d. Messaging.

24. (009) The following are all types of servers except

a. Print.

b. Word.

c. Database.

d. Messaging.

25. (010) What standard system is the DOD standard automated system that you will use as an HSM for patient registration, patient appointment, and patient scheduling?

a. AHLTA.

b. CHCS.

c. Essentris.

d. ICDB.

25. (010) What standard system is the DOD standard automated system that you will use as an HSM for patient registration, patient appointment, and patient scheduling?

a. AHLTA.

b. CHCS.

c. Essentris.

d. ICDB.

26. (010) What is used in acute hospital environments, providing point-of-care data captured at the patient’s bedside for physiological devices, fetal/uterine devices, ventilators, and other patient care machines?

a. AHLTA.

b. CHCS.

c. Essentris.

d. ICDB.

26. (010) What is used in acute hospital environments, providing point-of-care data captured at the patient’s bedside for physiological devices, fetal/uterine devices, ventilators, and other patient care machines?

a. AHLTA.

b. CHCS.

c. Essentris.

d. ICDB.

27. (010) What information systems application is the Air Force Medical Service’s intranet site?

a. Kx.

b. MHS.

c. TRICARE.

d. TRICARE Online.

27. (010) What information systems application is the Air Force Medical Service’s intranet site?

a. Kx.

b. MHS.

c. TRICARE.

d. TRICARE Online.

28. (011) What is the response time for trouble tickets/work orders if the level is elevated?

a. 15 minutes.

b. 30 minutes.

c. 1 hour.

d. 2 hours.

28. (011) What is the response time for trouble tickets/work orders if the level is elevated?

a. 15 minutes.

b. 30 minutes.

c. 1 hour.

d. 2 hours.

29. (011) How many support tiers are used in the help desk environment?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

29. (011) How many support tiers are used in the help desk environment?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

30. (012) Inventories must be kept in the equipment custodian folder for this number of years.

a. 2.

b. 3.

c. 4.

d. 5.

30. (012) Inventories must be kept in the equipment custodian folder for this number of years.

a. 2.

b. 3.

c. 4.

d. 5.

31. (012) After you sign the inventory listing, who signs the certification statements signifying that the appointment is accurate?

a. NCOIC.

b. OIC.

c. Commander.

d. Communications Squadron.

31. (012) After you sign the inventory listing, who signs the certification statements signifying that the appointment is accurate?

a. NCOIC.

b. OIC.

c. Commander.

d. Communications Squadron.

32. (013) What year did Congress establish the first hospital?

a. 1775.

b. 1776.

c. 1777.

d. 1778.

32. (013) What year did Congress establish the first hospital?

a. 1775.

b. 1776.

c. 1777.

d. 1778.

33. (013) “TRICARE” originally referred to the three main plan options, which were TRICARE Prime, TRICARE

a. Standard, and TRICARE Extra.

b. Standard, and TRICARE Remote.

c. Remote, and TRICARE Extra.

d. Standard, and TRICARE Reserve.

33. (013) “TRICARE” originally referred to the three main plan options, which were TRICARE Prime, TRICARE

a. Standard, and TRICARE Extra.

b. Standard, and TRICARE Remote.

c. Remote, and TRICARE Extra.

d. Standard, and TRICARE Reserve.

34. (014) The following medical conditions may qualify patients for Medicare before 65 years old, except:

a. end stage renal disease.

b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

c. Lou Gehrig’s Disease.

d. blood transfusions before 1995.

34. (014) The following medical conditions may qualify patients for Medicare before 65 years old, except:

a. end stage renal disease.

b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

c. Lou Gehrig’s Disease.

d. blood transfusions before 1995.

35. (014) What should you first consider when helping a patient narrow down the right TRICARE plan for them?

a. Home of record.

b. Location.

c. Medicare eligible.

d. Status.

35. (014) What should you first consider when helping a patient narrow down the right TRICARE plan for them?

a. Home of record.

b. Location.

c. Medicare eligible.

d. Status.

36. (015) What is the official website for TRICARE?

a. Knowledge Exchange.

b. TRICARE.mil.

c. TRICARE Online.

d. TRICARE.org.

36. (015) What is the official website for TRICARE?

a. Knowledge Exchange.

b. TRICARE.mil.

c. TRICARE Online.

d. TRICARE.org.

37. (015) What two convenient tools can you find on TRICARE.mil?

a. Primary care manager (PCM) finder and plan builder.

b. PCM finder and compare plans.

c. Plan finder and compare plans.

d. Plan finder and plan builder.

37. (015) What two convenient tools can you find on TRICARE.mil?

a. Primary care manager (PCM) finder and plan builder.

b. PCM finder and compare plans.

c. Plan finder and compare plans.

d. Plan finder and plan builder.

38. (015) Within the MTF, who is the functional champion of TRICARE Online (TOL)?

a. TOL Appointing Subject Matter Expert.

b. TOL Systems Administrator.

c. TOL Project Officer.

d. Provider, Clinics and Marketing point of contacts.

38. (015) Within the MTF, who is the functional champion of TRICARE Online (TOL)?

a. TOL Appointing Subject Matter Expert.

b. TOL Systems Administrator.

c. TOL Project Officer.

d. Provider, Clinics and Marketing point of contacts.

39. (016) What is the key to the success of TRICARE?

a. Accurate market analysis.

b. Comprehensive plan.

c. Traditional and social media.

d. Innovative marketing program.

39. (016) What is the key to the success of TRICARE?

a. Accurate market analysis.

b. Comprehensive plan.

c. Traditional and social media.

d. Innovative marketing program.

40. (016) Where can you go to get standardized and current marketing materials for TRICARE?

a. Beneficiary Education and Support Division.

b. The marketing office.

c. TRICARE Online.

d. TRICARE Regional Offices.

40. (016) Where can you go to get standardized and current marketing materials for TRICARE?

a. Beneficiary Education and Support Division.

b. The marketing office.

c. TRICARE Online.

d. TRICARE Regional Offices.

41. (017) What is the primary role of the Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC)?

a. Coordinate appropriate issues with Military Health System (MHS) and Defense Health Agency (DHA).

b. Describe or seek clarification on eligibility.

c. Respond to beneficiary, leadership and congressional inquiries.

d. Serve as a beneficiary advocate and problem solver.

41. (017) What is the primary role of the Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC)?

a. Coordinate appropriate issues with Military Health System (MHS) and Defense Health Agency (DHA).

b. Describe or seek clarification on eligibility.

c. Respond to beneficiary, leadership and congressional inquiries.

d. Serve as a beneficiary advocate and problem solver.

42. (017) The Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC) does not

a. coordinate appropriate issues with Military Health System (MHS) and Defense Health Agency (DHA).

b. describe or seek clarification on eligibility.

c. respond to beneficiary, leadership and congressional inquiries.

d. file claims for beneficiaries.

42. (017) The Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC) does not

a. coordinate appropriate issues with Military Health System (MHS) and Defense Health Agency (DHA).

b. describe or seek clarification on eligibility.

c. respond to beneficiary, leadership and congressional inquiries.

d. file claims for beneficiaries.

43. (018) Which of the following is not a responsibility for the Debt Collection Assistance Officer (DCAO)?

a. Work with functional experts to provide enrollment, benefit, and claims processing assistance.

b. Notify, by telephone or in writing, provider(s) and collection or credit reporting agency that the beneficiary’s case is being reviewed by the managed care support contractor (MCSC).

c. Assign a case number and forward beneficiary documentation to the MCSC’s Priority Collections Unit in the region service was rendered.

d. Collect copies of all pertinent documentation available from the beneficiary concerning the case; such as provider bills and notices, TRICARE EOBs, letters from providers or credit agencies.

43. (018) Which of the following is not a responsibility for the Debt Collection Assistance Officer (DCAO)?

a. Work with functional experts to provide enrollment, benefit, and claims processing assistance.

b. Notify, by telephone or in writing, provider(s) and collection or credit reporting agency that the beneficiary’s case is being reviewed by the managed care support contractor (MCSC).

c. Assign a case number and forward beneficiary documentation to the MCSC’s Priority Collections Unit in the region service was rendered.

d. Collect copies of all pertinent documentation available from the beneficiary concerning the case; such as provider bills and notices, TRICARE EOBs, letters from providers or credit agencies.

44. (019) What department level requires all active duty personnel have to attend in- and out- processing programs?

a. MAJCOMs.

b. DHA.

c. DOD.

d. USAF.

44. (019) What department level requires all active duty personnel have to attend in- and out- processing programs?

a. MAJCOMs.

b. DHA.

c. DOD.

d. USAF.

45. (019) Which of the following steps is not part of in-processing a beneficiary?

a. Collect Records.

b. Obtain documented personal health status information. c. Recommended preventive services.

d. Print laboratory/radiology results and place in records.

45. (019) Which of the following steps is not part of in-processing a beneficiary?

a. Collect Records.

b. Obtain documented personal health status information. c. Recommended preventive services.

d. Print laboratory/radiology results and place in records.

46. (020) In the National Defense Authorization Act, how often will the subtitles and sections change?

a. Every year.

b. Every two years.

c. Every five years.

d. They don’t change.

46. (020) In the National Defense Authorization Act, how often will the subtitles and sections change?

a. Every year.

b. Every two years.

c. Every five years.

d. They don’t change.

47. (020) How often is the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) presented to Congress?

a. Three times a year.

b. Twice a year.

c. Once a year.

d. Once every other year.

47. (020) How often is the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) presented to Congress?

a. Three times a year.

b. Twice a year.

c. Once a year.

d. Once every other year.

48. (021) Which is not an example of a data driven decision?

a. Check the weather before going on a trip.

b. Pull and analyze figures before changing templates.

c. Go with your ‘gut’ when making a decision.

d. Consider movie reviews before going to see one.

48. (021) Which is not an example of a data driven decision?

a. Check the weather before going on a trip.

b. Pull and analyze figures before changing templates.

c. Go with your ‘gut’ when making a decision.

d. Consider movie reviews before going to see one.

9. (021) The best reason to use data to aid in the decision making process is because it

a. takes the ‘emotion’ out and focuses on the facts.

b. is mandatory across all of the services.

c. guarantees successful outcomes.

d. guarantees standard outcomes.

9. (021) The best reason to use data to aid in the decision making process is because it

a. takes the ‘emotion’ out and focuses on the facts.

b. is mandatory across all of the services.

c. guarantees successful outcomes.

d. guarantees standard outcomes.

50. (022) Of the reports listed below, what is not a TRICARE Operations Center Report?

a. Access to Care Summary Report.

b. Access to Care Management Report.

c. Daily Outpatient Workload Detailed Report.

d. Detail Code Usage and Summary Report.

50. (022) Of the reports listed below, what is not a TRICARE Operations Center Report?

a. Access to Care Summary Report.

b. Access to Care Management Report.

c. Daily Outpatient Workload Detailed Report.

d. Detail Code Usage and Summary Report.

51. (022) The most simplified description for the TOC entails three basic elements. What is not one of those elements?

a. Get Data.

b. Display Data.

c. Print Data.

d. Process Data.

51. (022) The most simplified description for the TOC entails three basic elements. What is not one of those elements?

a. Get Data.

b. Display Data.

c. Print Data.

d. Process Data.

52. (022) What is a program that aggregates data and measures daily transmission and completeness from source data collection systems?

a. ADM.

b. BDQAS.

c. CHCS ad hoc.

d. TOL.

52. (022) What is a program that aggregates data and measures daily transmission and completeness from source data collection systems?

a. ADM.

b. BDQAS.

c. CHCS ad hoc.

d. TOL.

53. (022) What system produces various standard reports and you can request specific reports be run on demand, nightly, weekly, or on a monthly basis?

a. ADM.

b. BDQAS.

c. CHCS ad hoc.

d. TOL.

53. (022) What system produces various standard reports and you can request specific reports be run on demand, nightly, weekly, or on a monthly basis?

a. ADM.

b. BDQAS.

c. CHCS ad hoc.

d. TOL.

54. (023) Resource sharing is based on the assumption that costs associated with the provision of these resources will be more than offset by decreased

a. prime expenses.

b. TRICARE costs.

c. government costs.

d. contractor expenses.

54. (023) Resource sharing is based on the assumption that costs associated with the provision of these resources will be more than offset by decreased

a. prime expenses.

b. TRICARE costs.

c. government costs.

d. contractor expenses.

55. (023) When utilizing resource support, who may request a task order for personnel equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies?

a. TROs.

b. MTF commander.

c. NCOIC, TRICARE.

d. Health Benefits Advisor.

55. (023) When utilizing resource support, who may request a task order for personnel equipment, equipment maintenance, and supplies?

a. TROs.

b. MTF commander.

c. NCOIC, TRICARE.

d. Health Benefits Advisor.

56. (023) Whose policy requires you to consider if resource-sharing agreements are in the best interest of the government and are in support of the regional health care plan?

a. TRICARE.

b. Governmental.

c. MDG/CC.

d. MCS contractor.

56. (023) Whose policy requires you to consider if resource-sharing agreements are in the best interest of the government and are in support of the regional health care plan?

a. TRICARE.

b. Governmental.

c. MDG/CC.

d. MCS contractor.

57. (023) Who performs periodic reviews of MTF/VA facility resource sharing agreements to ensure compatibility with agreements including VA facilities as network providers?

a. TRO.

b. Surgeon General.

c. MTF commander.

d. MCS contractor.

57. (023) Who performs periodic reviews of MTF/VA facility resource sharing agreements to ensure compatibility with agreements including VA facilities as network providers?

a. TRO.

b. Surgeon General.

c. MTF commander.

d. MCS contractor.

58. (024) Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and

a. Insurance Claims Amendments.

b. Disability of Americans Amendments.

c. Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments.

d. Medical Release of Information Amendments.

58. (024) Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and

a. Insurance Claims Amendments.

b. Disability of Americans Amendments.

c. Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments.

d. Medical Release of Information Amendments.

59. (024) What are some examples of non-sensitive PII?

a. Name and driver’s license number.

b. Citizenship and gender.

c. Military records and religious preference.

d. Office location and business telephone number.

59. (024) What are some examples of non-sensitive PII?

a. Name and driver’s license number.

b. Citizenship and gender.

c. Military records and religious preference.

d. Office location and business telephone number.

60. (024) What is HIPAA’s training requirement?

a. Initial only.

b. Initial and twice a year refresher.

c. Initial and an annual refresher.

d. Initial and an every other year refresher.

60. (024) What is HIPAA’s training requirement?

a. Initial only.

b. Initial and twice a year refresher.

c. Initial and an annual refresher.

d. Initial and an every other year refresher.

61. (025) Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband’s medical record information to an insurance company?

a. No consent necessary for member’s own insurance company.

b. Verbal consent from the husband.

c. Written consent from husband.

d. Verbal consent from wife.

61. (025) Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband’s medical record information to an insurance company?

a. No consent necessary for member’s own insurance company.

b. Verbal consent from the husband.

c. Written consent from husband.

d. Verbal consent from wife.

62. (025) What action do you take when an incorrect payment is received from an insurance company for copies of medical records?

a. Hold the check, notify the insurance company of the additional charges, and return the check upon receipt of a check for the correct amount.

b. Send the check to the base finance office for deposit and notify the medical service account (MSA. officer that a balance is due and has not been requested.

c. Send the information requested along with a letter to the company specifying the amount owed to the Government.

d. Destroy the check and request that the company issue another check for the correct amount.

62. (025) What action do you take when an incorrect payment is received from an insurance company for copies of medical records?

a. Hold the check, notify the insurance company of the additional charges, and return the check upon receipt of a check for the correct amount.

b. Send the check to the base finance office for deposit and notify the medical service account (MSA. officer that a balance is due and has not been requested.

c. Send the information requested along with a letter to the company specifying the amount owed to the Government.

d. Destroy the check and request that the company issue another check for the correct amount.

63. (025) When possible, what is the best way to transfer PHI for routine disclosure of information to insurance companies, attorneys or other legitimate users?

a. Fax machine.

b. Work e-mail.

c. Personal e-mail.

d. Snail mail.

63. (025) When possible, what is the best way to transfer PHI for routine disclosure of information to insurance companies, attorneys or other legitimate users?

a. Fax machine.

b. Work e-mail.

c. Personal e-mail.

d. Snail mail.

64. (025) Once a breach investigation is complete, who will assess the results of the risk assessment and recommendations in determining whether affected individuals should be notified of the breach?

a. Leadership.

b. Breach Response Coordinator.

c. Release of information Officer.

d. Installation Privacy Act Official.

64. (025) Once a breach investigation is complete, who will assess the results of the risk assessment and recommendations in determining whether affected individuals should be notified of the breach?

a. Leadership.

b. Breach Response Coordinator.

c. Release of information Officer.

d. Installation Privacy Act Official.

65. (025) Information that may affect a patient’s morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered

a. Non-releasable.

b. Classified.

c. Sensitive.

d. Secret.

65. (025) Information that may affect a patient’s morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered

a. Non-releasable.

b. Classified.

c. Sensitive.

d. Secret.

66. (026) The prefix meaning “within” is

a. in-.

b. infra-.

c. inter-.

d. intra-.

66. (026) The prefix meaning “within” is

a. in-.

b. infra-.

c. inter-.

d. intra-.

67. (027) The suffix “-penia” means

a. fastening, fixation.

b. expressing primarily by speech.

c. reshaping or remodeling surgically.

d. lacking or reducing in number of.

67. (027) The suffix “-penia” means

a. fastening, fixation.

b. expressing primarily by speech.

c. reshaping or remodeling surgically.

d. lacking or reducing in number of.

68. (028) Adren(o) is the root word meaning

a. abdomen.

b. hearing.

c. adrenal gland.

d. vessel.

68. (028) Adren(o) is the root word meaning

a. abdomen.

b. hearing.

c. adrenal gland.

d. vessel.

69. (028) Arthr(o) is the root word meaning

a. artery.

b. gland.

c. joint.

d. neck.

69. (028) Arthr(o) is the root word meaning

a. artery.

b. gland.

c. joint.

d. neck.

70. (029) What is the abbreviation for “twice a night”?

a. aq.

b. b.i.d.

c. BIN.

.d. Cap.

70. (029) What is the abbreviation for “twice a night”?

a. aq.

b. b.i.d.

c. BIN.

.d. Cap.

71. (029) What is the abbreviation for “both ears”?

a. AD.

b. AE.

c. AK.

d. AU.

71. (029) What is the abbreviation for “both ears”?

a. AD.

b. AE.

c. AK.

d. AU.

72. (030) The anatomical term “external” refers to something

a. outward from the center of the body.

b. toward the outside of the body.

c. toward the back of the body.

d. inside the body.

72. (030) The anatomical term “external” refers to something

a. outward from the center of the body.

b. toward the outside of the body.

c. toward the back of the body.

d. inside the body.

73. (030) The anatomical term “peripheral” refers to something

a. outward from the center of the body.

b. toward the outside of the body.

c. toward the back of the body.

d. inside the body.

73. (030) The anatomical term “peripheral” refers to something

a. outward from the center of the body.

b. toward the outside of the body.

c. toward the back of the body.

d. inside the body.

74. (031) What body system breaks food down into nutrients that can be used as fuel?

a. Circulatory.

b. Endocrine.

c. Digestive.

d. Urinary.

74. (031) What body system breaks food down into nutrients that can be used as fuel?

a. Circulatory.

b. Endocrine.

c. Digestive.

d. Urinary.

75. (032) Which macromolecules carry instructions that tell each cell how to perform their particular jobs?

a. Nucleic acids.

b. Carbohydrates.

c. Proteins.

d. Lipids.

75. (032) Which macromolecules carry instructions that tell each cell how to perform their particular jobs?

a. Nucleic acids.

b. Carbohydrates.

c. Proteins.

d. Lipids.

76. (032) Which type of tissue covers the body surface and forms the skin?

a. Connective.

b. Epithelial.

c. Nervous.

d. Muscle.

76. (032) Which type of tissue covers the body surface and forms the skin?

a. Connective.

b. Epithelial.

c. Nervous.

d. Muscle.

77. (033) The dermis

a. forms the innermost layer of the skin.

b. forms the outermost layer of the skin.

c. keeps the temperature of the body normal range.

d. provides extra fuel for the body.

77. (033) The dermis

a. forms the innermost layer of the skin.

b. forms the outermost layer of the skin.

c. keeps the temperature of the body normal range.

d. provides extra fuel for the body.

78. (033) Subcutaneous tissue

a. forms the middle layer of the skin.

b. forms the outermost layer of the skin.

c. keeps the temperature of the body normal range.

d. provides extra fuel for the body.

78. (033) Subcutaneous tissue

a. forms the middle layer of the skin.

b. forms the outermost layer of the skin.

c. keeps the temperature of the body normal range.

d. provides extra fuel for the body.

79. (034) About how many bones does an adult have?

a. 190.

b. 260.

c. 206.

d. 226.

79. (034) About how many bones does an adult have?

a. 190.

b. 260.

c. 206.

d. 226.

80. (034) The place where bones meet is a

a. spinal column.

b. spinal cord.

c. muscle.

d. joint.

80. (034) The place where bones meet is a

a. spinal column.

b. spinal cord.

c. muscle.

d. joint.

81. (035) Skeletal muscles are sometimes called

a. pulling.

b. fixed.

c. voluntary.

d. involuntary.

81. (035) Skeletal muscles are sometimes called

a. pulling.

b. fixed.

c. voluntary.

d. involuntary.

82. (035) Smooth muscle are found in most of the body’s

a. internal organs.

b. bone marrow.

c. blood cells.

d. tendons.

82. (035) Smooth muscle are found in most of the body’s

a. internal organs.

b. bone marrow.

c. blood cells.

d. tendons.

83. (035) About how many times does the heart beat a minute on average throughout a person’s lifetime?

a. 60.

b. 65.

c. 70.

d. 75.

83. (035) About how many times does the heart beat a minute on average throughout a person’s lifetime?

a. 60.

b. 65.

c. 70.

d. 75.

84. (036) The main part of the digestive system is the

a. alimentary canal.

b. large intestine.

c. esophagus.

d. mouth.

84. (036) The main part of the digestive system is the

a. alimentary canal.

b. large intestine.

c. esophagus.

d. mouth.

85. (036) Digestion begins in the

a. esophagus.

b. intestines.

c. stomach.

d. mouth.

85. (036) Digestion begins in the

a. esophagus.

b. intestines.

c. stomach.

d. mouth.

86. (036) When is food completely digested?

a. When it passes from the esophagus and into the stomach.

b. When it leaves the first section of the small intestine.

c. While it’s in the large intestine.

d. When it leaves the body as a bowel movement.

86. (036) When is food completely digested?

a. When it passes from the esophagus and into the stomach.

b. When it leaves the first section of the small intestine.

c. While it’s in the large intestine.

d. When it leaves the body as a bowel movement.

87. (037) Inhaling and exhaling result mainly from contractions of the

a. diaphragm.

b. brain.

c. lungs.

d. heart.

87. (037) Inhaling and exhaling result mainly from contractions of the

a. diaphragm.

b. brain.

c. lungs.

d. heart.

88. (037) Air passes through the nose, then, in sequence, it passes through the

a. larynx, pharynx, and enters the trachea.

b. pharynx, larynx, and enters the trachea.

c. pharynx and enters the trachea.

d. larynx and enters the trachea.

88. (037) Air passes through the nose, then, in sequence, it passes through the

a. larynx, pharynx, and enters the trachea.

b. pharynx, larynx, and enters the trachea.

c. pharynx and enters the trachea.

d. larynx and enters the trachea.

89. (038) Arteries carry blood

a. away from the lungs.

b. away from the heart.

c. to the lungs.

d. to the heart.

89. (038) Arteries carry blood

a. away from the lungs.

b. away from the heart.

c. to the lungs.

d. to the heart.

90. (038) Red blood cells are also known as

a. erythrocytes.

b. hemoglobin.

c. leukocytes.

d. thrombocytes.

90. (038) Red blood cells are also known as

a. erythrocytes.

b. hemoglobin.

c. leukocytes.

d. thrombocytes.

91. (039) The fluid that bathes and nourishes the cells of the body tissue is called

a. interstitial.

b. lymphatic.

c. thymus. .

d. plasma.

91. (039) The fluid that bathes and nourishes the cells of the body tissue is called

a. interstitial.

b. lymphatic.

c. thymus. .

d. plasma.

92. (039) All of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or the

a. right lymphatic duct.

b. left lymphatic duct.

c. veins near the lungs.

d. veins near the heart.

92. (039) All of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or the

a. right lymphatic duct.

b. left lymphatic duct.

c. veins near the lungs.

d. veins near the heart.

93. (039) The lymphatic system elements of this part of the circulatory system include all the following except

a. lymph node.

b. lymphatic vessels.

c. lymphatic artery.

d. thoracic duct.

93. (039) The lymphatic system elements of this part of the circulatory system include all the following except

a. lymph node.

b. lymphatic vessels.

c. lymphatic artery.

d. thoracic duct.

94. (040) Each kidney has about a million microscopic filtering units known as

a. lymphs.

b. nephrons.

c. tubes.

d. ureters.

94. (040) Each kidney has about a million microscopic filtering units known as

a. lymphs.

b. nephrons.

c. tubes.

d. ureters.

95. (041) What opens into the top of the uterus?

a. Ovaries.

b. Fallopian tubes.

c. Vas deferens.

d. Vagina.

95. (041) What opens into the top of the uterus?

a. Ovaries.

b. Fallopian tubes.

c. Vas deferens.

d. Vagina.

96. (042) Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?

a. Endocrine.

b. Exocrine.

c. Adrenal.

d. Thyroid.

96. (042) Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?

a. Endocrine.

b. Exocrine.

c. Adrenal.

d. Thyroid.

97. (042) Which gland is the “master gland”?

a. Exocrine.

b. Pituitary.

c. Adrenal.

d. Thyroid.

97. (042) Which gland is the “master gland”?

a. Exocrine.

b. Pituitary.

c. Adrenal.

d. Thyroid.

98. (042) The exocrine glands make chemicals that perform specific jobs in the area where they are released. Major exocrine products include the digestive juices, mucus, sweat and

a. hormones.

b. insulin.

c. tears.

d. urine.

98. (042) The exocrine glands make chemicals that perform specific jobs in the area where they are released. Major exocrine products include the digestive juices, mucus, sweat and

a. hormones.

b. insulin.

c. tears.

d. urine.

99. (043) Sensory neurons carry information

a. from the autonomic nervous system.

b. to the autonomic nervous system.

c. from the central nervous system.

d. to the central nervous system.

99. (043) Sensory neurons carry information

a. from the autonomic nervous system.

b. to the autonomic nervous system.

c. from the central nervous system.

d. to the central nervous system.