Term
Which anesthetic agents can cause malignant hyperthermia? |
|
Definition
all inhalational agents (halothane, sevoflurane, isoflurane, desflurane) and succhinylcholine |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of anesthesia? |
|
Definition
nausea, incomplete pain relief, nerve injury, malignant hyperthermia |
|
|
Term
What is malignant hyperthermia? |
|
Definition
autosomal dominant inherited myopathy, defect of the ryanodyne receptor (calcium release channel), intracellular calcium increases 500-fold causing a hypermetabolic state with muscle rigidity and acute severe rhabdomyolysis after exposure to triggering agents |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
dantrolene= works by inhibiting SR calcium release without affecting uptake (reduces mortality from 70% to less than 5%) |
|
|
Term
What is the incidence of MH in children versus adults? |
|
Definition
1/15,000 in children versus 1/50,000 in adults |
|
|
Term
What is multimodal (targeted) analgesia? |
|
Definition
analgesic regimens that employ a variety of agents in small doses to block pain perception at different sites in the peripheral and central nervous system |
|
|
Term
T/F Multimodal analgesia allows for faster recovery and earlier hospital discharge. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Conduction blocking profile of local anesthetics depends on... |
|
Definition
lipid solubility, degree of protein binding, and pKa |
|
|
Term
Lipid solubility determines anesthetic ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Degree of protein binding determines... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can you increase the uptake of local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
additio of sodium bicarb to raise the pH closer to the pKa to drive more extracellular local anesthetic into the nonionized or base form |
|
|
Term
What causes allergy to local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
release of PABA (paraaminobutyric acid from amino esters) |
|
|
Term
Name two of the more common local acting anesthetics. |
|
Definition
bupivacaine and ropivicaine |
|
|
Term
Which location of injection are associated with the highest blood levels of local anesthetics? |
|
Definition
highest= intercostal block; 2nd highest= caudal block; 3rd highest= epidural |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
long acting bupivicaine in tiny lipid based particles |
|
|
Term
How long does exparel last? |
|
Definition
72 hours (rather than 8 hours) |
|
|
Term
What instrument is used to ensure correct placement of a nerve block? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the components of anesthesia? |
|
Definition
analgesia, unconsciousness, amnesia, and muscular relaxation |
|
|
Term
What are the components of aneshtesia at lower concentrations? |
|
Definition
analgesia, unconsciousness, amnesia |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of anesthesia at higher concentrations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of neuromuscular blockers? |
|
Definition
facilitates intubation, provides muscular relaxation during surgery, fascilitates artificial ventilation |
|
|
Term
How many vesicles of ACh are at the end of each nerve terminal? How many are exocytosed with each impulse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After it is released, ACh is rapidly hydrolyzed by... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the nicotinic effects of ACh? |
|
Definition
autonomic ganglia stimulation and skeletal muscle stimulation |
|
|
Term
What are the two broad types of neuromuscular junction blocking drugs? |
|
Definition
depolarizers and nondepolarizers |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of depolarizers? |
|
Definition
ACh like so they stimulate the cholinergic receptor and depolarize the muscle cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
succinylcholine (diactylcholine) |
|
|
Term
T/F It is normal for the patient to have fasiculations after you give them succinylcholine. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of succinylcholine? |
|
Definition
increases intracranial pressure, increases intraocular pressure, increases serum potassium levels, leg and muscle pain (caused by fasciculation), triggering agent for malignant hyperthermia |
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of nondepolarizers? |
|
Definition
bind to the post-synaptic receptor of the motor endplate and competitively prevent acetylcholine from binding to that receptor |
|
|
Term
Name some examples of nondepolarizers. |
|
Definition
vecuronium, pancuronium, rocuronium |
|
|
Term
How do you reverse the action of nondepolarizers? |
|
Definition
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (e.g. neostigmine) in combination with an antimuscarinic agent (atropine or glycopyrolate) |
|
|
Term
How do you select which muscle relaxant to use? |
|
Definition
duration of action, cardiovascular effects, class of muscle relaxant |
|
|
Term
T/F Rocuronium has a lot of cardiovascular side effects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the duration of action of succinylcholine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the difference between atracurium and cis-atracurium? |
|
Definition
less side effects (reduction in histamine release and more cardiac stability) and slightly shorter acting |
|
|
Term
Why is rocuronium the most popular nondepolarizers? |
|
Definition
quick onset of approximately a minute and a half |
|
|
Term
In what situations would you use atracurium? |
|
Definition
if you have a patient with kidney failure and/or liver failure because atracurium doesn't require any organs for its metabolism and elimination and is therefore called "organ independent" |
|
|
Term
Why was rapicuronium pulled from the market? |
|
Definition
quicker onset and shorter duration; pulled from the market because it was associated with bronchospasm |
|
|
Term
Besides AChE inhibitor/antimuscarinic, what else can you use to reverse nondepolarizers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why might you want to use sugammadex over neostigmine/glycopyrrolate combo? |
|
Definition
you avoid side effects such as PONV and heart rate changes |
|
|
Term
Name some examples of antimuscarinics. |
|
Definition
atropine or glycopyrolate |
|
|
Term
Name some acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. |
|
Definition
neostigmine or edrophonium |
|
|
Term
What are the two methods by which you tell whether a patient is no longer paralyzed by NM blocking agents? |
|
Definition
electrical twitch monitor and clinical signs |
|
|
Term
What does it mean if a patient has an electrical twitch monitor of 0/4? |
|
Definition
more than or equal to 95% of their receptors are blocked |
|
|
Term
What does a 4/4 on electrical twitch monitor mean? |
|
Definition
still have up to 2/3rds of receptors blocked |
|
|
Term
What clinical signs are used to tell whether a person is paralyzed? |
|
Definition
lift head for 5 seconds or give a firm hand grip |
|
|
Term
If a patient can lift their head for five seconds or give a firm hand grip it means that... |
|
Definition
no more than 1/3 of the neuromuscular receptors are blocked |
|
|
Term
What are the brain wave monitors supposed to measure? |
|
Definition
depth of consciousness and likelihood of recall |
|
|
Term
Where do you want the patient's EEG score to be when putting them under anesthesia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MOA of anesthetics? |
|
Definition
largely unknown but probably the GABA(A) receptor is the primary target |
|
|
Term
What are the important characteristics of general anesthetics? |
|
Definition
controllability and non-specific action |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of uptake for an anesthetic? |
|
Definition
uptake=(lambdaxQx[Pa-Pv])/BP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
solubility (blood/gas partition coefficient which is directly related to solubility) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
rate of diffusion (alveolar minus venous partial pressure of an anesthetic or rate of diffusion) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the newest anesthetics and their unique characteristics? |
|
Definition
desflurane and sevoflurane; very low solubility so quicker onset and quicker elimination |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the dose that prevents movement of a patient to painful stimuli 50% of the time |
|
|
Term
What MAC dose will prevent movement of a patient 100% of the time to painful stimuli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When might you need higher levels of MAC? |
|
Definition
if patient is young, chronic alcoholic, hypernatremic, or a cocaine user |
|
|
Term
When would you need a lower level of MAC? |
|
Definition
if a patient is pregnant, elderly, hyponatremic, anemic, or on lithium or clonidine |
|
|
Term
What is the only gas currently being used to aid general anesthesia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the odor/taste of nitrous oxide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why isn't nitrous oxide used very often? |
|
Definition
because it is associated with nausea and vomiting |
|
|
Term
What must you given in cominbation with nitrous oxide to achieve anesthesia? |
|
Definition
one of the volatile halogenated hydrocarbons or an opioid analgesic |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of halothane? |
|
Definition
hepatitis under hypoxic conditions d/t reductive metablism and production of flouride |
|
|
Term
In what situation might you want to use isoflurane? |
|
Definition
in a patient whom you knew was going to the ICU after surgery anyway and so there would be no need to have them woken up quicker becuaseisoflurane takes the longest but is also the cheapest |
|
|
Term
In what situations is sevoflurane used? |
|
Definition
pediatric inductions because it is not very pungent |
|
|
Term
What physical properties of desflurane allow it to wear off quickly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which inhalation agent allows patients to recover quickest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the unitary hypothesis? |
|
Definition
hypothesis that all inhalation agents share a common mechanism of action at the molecular level (namely the GABA[A] receptor) |
|
|
Term
Name three inducing agents. |
|
Definition
thiopental, methohexital, etomidate, or propofol (propofol has pretty much replaced thiopental or methohexital) |
|
|
Term
Which anesthetic used to be given reectally to induce anesthesia in kids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of propofol? |
|
Definition
burning at infusion site (so you put lidocaine in it), drops blood pressure |
|
|
Term
How do you perofrm anesthesia in kids? |
|
Definition
give them oral midazolam to calm them down and then give them sevoflurane to induce anesthesia |
|
|
Term
What is it called when you do an entire procedure using only propofol? |
|
Definition
TIVA (or total intravenous anesthetic |
|
|
Term
T/F Propofol causes nausea/vomiting. |
|
Definition
false, it actually has an anti-emetic effect |
|
|
Term
When might you want to give a patient etomidate? |
|
Definition
if they are elderly or have limited cardiac reserve; keeps all of your parameters within 10% of baseline |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of etomidate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What inducing agent should you give in the ICU? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why don't you give etomidate in teh ICU? |
|
Definition
it interferes with adrenal cortical steroidogenesis by inhibiting the 11-beta-hydroxylase enzyme |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of ketamine? |
|
Definition
increases your heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output |
|
|
Term
What are the uses of ketamine? |
|
Definition
several uses including an intense analgesic effect; OB |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an anesthetic adjuvant that is an alpha 2 agonist in the CNS to provide a sedating effect |
|
|
Term
When might you use dexmedetomidine? |
|
Definition
given IV in the operating room or in the ICU |
|
|
Term
What is the most commonly given benzodiazepine in anesthesia? |
|
Definition
midazolam because it has a short action (2-3 hours) |
|
|
Term
Why aren't lorazepam and diazepam used before anesthesia? |
|
Definition
lorazepam has a half life of 10-20 hrs; diazepam has a half life that is dependent on how old the patient is (1 hour for every year of life) |
|
|
Term
Why is midazolam given first for a patient going into surgery? |
|
Definition
given as an anxiolytic and as an amnestic (NOT a analgesic) |
|
|
Term
What is given to the patient after midazolam? |
|
Definition
propofol and a muscle relaxant (succinylcholine or rocuronium), then the patient is intubated and given an inhalation agen (desflurane or sevoflurane) |
|
|
Term
How is analgesia reversed? |
|
Definition
turn off the inhalation agent and then reverse the muscle relaxant with neostigmine and glycopyrrolate; then the anesthesiologist will make sure the patient can move |
|
|
Term
How do you reverse the actio of benzodiazepines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is used to reverse the action of opiates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most commonly used opiate in anesthesia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the strength of fentanyl? |
|
Definition
80-100x as strong as morphine with better side effect profile |
|
|
Term
Why is fentanyl better to use than morphine? |
|
Definition
less histamine release than morphine; fewer side effects; also fentanyl is a lot stronger |
|
|
Term
T/F The amount of fentanyl you give contributes to the MAC dose. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most commonly used opiate in the recovery room? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which patients should you never use morphine? |
|
Definition
patients with renal injury |
|
|
Term
What is the active form of morphine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the strength of meperidine? |
|
Definition
1/10th as strong as morphine |
|
|
Term
Why is meperidine no longer used at UH? |
|
Definition
side effect profile; increases heart rate and can cause serotonergic syndrome if the patient is also taking MAOIs or St. John's wort |
|
|
Term
Describe the strength of sufantanil. |
|
Definition
1,000x as strong as morphine |
|
|
Term
Which opioid doesn't require an organ to break it down? |
|
Definition
remifentanil (derivative of fentanyl and metabolized rapidly by plasma enzymes) |
|
|
Term
What opiate would you use for patients with severe organ failure and where rapid recovery would be of benefit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can you alter a anesthetic regime to prevent nausea and vomiting? |
|
Definition
use less fentanyl, use more propofol, stay away from nitrous oxide |
|
|