Term
79. (218) This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to
directly connect the warfighter to the global network
a. Global applications.
b. Warrior component.
c. Network operations.
d. Information management. |
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Definition
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Term
80. (218) This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of
information between different service branches
a. Joint architecture.
b. Unity of command.
c. Information services.
d. Common policy and standards. |
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Definition
| d. Common policy and standards. |
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Term
81. (219) Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustaining base portion of the Defense
Information System Network?
a. The service that owns the installation.
b. Defense Information System Agency.
c. Infrastructure technicians.
d. Deployed warfighters. |
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Definition
| a. The service that owns the installation. |
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Term
82. (219) Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the
deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from
combat?
a. Long-haul transport infrastructure.
b. Deployed warfighter.
c. Theater Battle Management Core System terminal.
d. Sustaining base. |
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Definition
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Term
83. (220) What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
a. Operated and managed as a base communications asset.
b. Considered one of the primary components of the Defense Information Systems Network.
c. Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode
network.
d. Completely protected by encryption devices. |
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Definition
c. Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode
network. |
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Term
84. (221) How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
a. Protocols cannot be sent across the SIPRNET.
b. Transmitted from sender to user unchanged.
c. Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.
d. Encrypted by a TACLANE before being transmitted across the SIPRNET. |
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Definition
| c. Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET. |
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Term
85. (221) Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local
area networks?
a. KG–84.
b. KG–194.
c. KIV–7.
d. KG175. |
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Definition
|
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Term
86. (222) What provides conduit for Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communication System data
transmission from one location to another?
a. DISN backbone.
b. JDISS terminal.
c. SIPRNET.
d. NIPRNET. |
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Definition
|
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Term
87. (223) What concerns slowed the military’s adoption of wireless network technology?
a. Speed and reliability.
b. Security and reliability.
c. Reliability and maintenance.
d. Certification and interoperability. |
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Definition
| b. Security and reliability. |
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Term
88. (223) What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network
within the Air Force?
a. Adding more traditional time division multiplexing voice switches to handle additional data
traffic.
b. Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.
c. Complete replacement of TDM switches with VoIP technology.
d. Managing TDM switches in the same way we manage data networks. |
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Definition
| b. Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems. |
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Term
89. (223) Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat
Information Transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
a. Establishing a Network Operation and Security Center at each base.
b. Creating a security baseline across all MAJCOM areas of responsibility.
c. Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers to
establish a baseline security model.
d. Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated
NOSCs. |
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Definition
d. Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated
NOSCs. |
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Term
90. (224) Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and single systems
management of the Defense Switched Network?
a. Defense Logistics Agency.
b. Communications Squadron.
c. Air Force Communications Agency.
d. Defense Information Systems Agency. |
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Definition
| d. Defense Information Systems Agency. |
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Term
91. (224) How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network?
a. End offices are multiple-homed.
b. End offices do not interoperate with allied networks.
c. The DSN offers precedence access thresholding.
d. The DSN offers single level precedence and preemption. |
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Definition
| c. The DSN offers precedence access thresholding. |
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Term
92. (224) What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?
a. Flash.
b. Priority.
c. Intermediate.
d. Flash Override. |
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Definition
|
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Term
93. (225) What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network
(DRSN)?
a. 9.6 Kbps.
b. 14.4 Kbps.
c. 19.2 Kbps.
d. 28.8 Kbps. |
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Definition
|
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Term
94. (225) While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the
correct number at the proper level of security?
a. Recorded voice message.
b. Punched computer cards.
c. Liquid crystal display.
d. Punched paper tape. |
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Definition
| c. Liquid crystal display. |
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Term
95. (226) What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?
a. To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.
b. To lessen the amount of traffic transmitted through the gateway terminals.
c. To provide one-way communication access for deployed locations.
d. To replace the old tactical satellite communications system. |
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Definition
| a. To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders. |
|
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Term
96. (227) The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within
how many seconds of universal time code?
a. 2 microseconds.
b. 2 seconds.
c. 1 microsecond.
d. 1 second. |
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Definition
|
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Term
97. (228) Which security program is covered under AFI 10–701?
a. OPSEC.
b. EMSEC.
c. COMSEC.
d. COMPUSEC. |
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Definition
|
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Term
98. (228) Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical
information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and
other activities?
a. OPSEC.
b. EMSEC.
c. COMSEC.
d. COMPUSEC. |
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Definition
|
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Term
99. (229) Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best
describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
a. Purpose.
b. Authority.
c. Disclosure.
d. Routine use. |
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Definition
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Term
100. (229) What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
a. AF Form 2327.
b. AF Form 3217.
c. AF Form 3227.
d. AF Form 3327. |
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Definition
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Term
101. (229) Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in
a. AFI 33–119.
b. AFI 33–129.
c. AFI 33–219.
d. AFI 33–329. |
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Definition
|
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Term
102. (229) Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified
information can be found in
a. AFI 31–301.
b. AFI 31–401.
c. AFI 31–501.
d. AFI 31–601. |
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Definition
|
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Term
103. (229) Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or
unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as
a. secret.
b. confidential.
c. for official use only.
d. sensitive but unclassified. |
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Definition
| d. sensitive but unclassified. |
|
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Term
104. (230) What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
a. Relocate classified material to strengthen security.
b. Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security.
c. Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.
d. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. |
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Definition
| d. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information. |
|
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Term
105. (230) What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
a. AFI 33–119.
b. AFI 33–129.
c. AFI 33–219.
d. AFI 33–329. |
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Definition
|
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Term
106. (230) Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
a. SF 135.
b. SF 153.
c. SF 351.
d. SF 531. |
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Definition
|
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Term
107. (230) Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas?
a. AF Form 1019.
b. AF Form 1109.
c. AF Form 1119.
d. AF Form 1190. |
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Definition
|
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Term
108. (231) An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of
COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a
COMSEC
a. insecurity.
b. deviation.
c. incident.
d. report. |
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Definition
|
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Term
109. (231) Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
a. Air Force Communications Agency.
b. Air Force Office of Record.
c. Central Office of Records.
d. National Security Agency. |
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Definition
| a. Air Force Communications Agency. |
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Term
110. (231) Final reports of a communication security incident are due
a. 10 days after the initial report is dated.
b. 20 days after the initial report is signed.
c. 30 days after the initial report is issued.
d. 40 days after the initial report is approved. |
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Definition
| c. 30 days after the initial report is issued. |
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Term
111. (232) The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in
a. AFI 33–100.
b. AFI 33–200.
c. AFI 33–300.
d. AFI 33–400. |
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Definition
|
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Term
112. (232) Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer
systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?
a. OPSEC.
b. EMSEC.
c. COMSEC.
d. COMPUSEC. |
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Definition
|
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Term
113. (233) What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of
communications equipment?
a. Emulation.
b. Emanation.
c. Signature.
d. Salutation. |
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Definition
|
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Term
114. (233) An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations
from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
a. Emission security.
b. Communication security.
c. Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions.
d. Computer security. |
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Definition
| c. Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions. |
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Term
115. (234) Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer
networks?
a. INFOCON 2.
b. INFOCON 3.
c. INFOCON 4.
d. INFOCON 5. |
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Definition
|
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Term
116. (234) Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system
activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
a. INFOCON 2.
b. INFOCON 3.
c. INFOCON 4.
d. INFOCON 5. |
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Definition
|
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Term
117. (234) When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all
unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?
a. INFOCON 2.
b. INFOCON 3.
c. INFOCON 4.
d. INFOCON 5. |
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Definition
|
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Term
118. (234) Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with
alternate methods of communication?
a. INFOCON 2.
b. INFOCON 3.
c. INFOCON 4.
d. INFOCON 5. |
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Definition
|
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Term
119. (235) At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational
oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?
a. Tier 1.
b. Tier 2.
c. Tier 3.
d. Tier 4. |
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Definition
|
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Term
120. (235) At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) to
ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network
Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information
Dissemination Management?
a. Tier 1.
b. Tier 2.
c. Tier 3.
d. Tier 4. |
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Definition
|
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Term
121. (235) An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it
was originally intended is known as
a. a full accreditation.
b. a type accreditation.
c. a major accreditation.
d. an interim accreditation. |
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Definition
|
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Term
122. (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a
significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
a. “A”.
b. “B”.
c. “C”.
d. “D”. |
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Definition
|
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Term
123. (236) Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a
reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
a. “A”.
b. “B”.
c. “C”.
d. “D”. |
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Definition
|
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Term
124. (236) Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing
“confidential” information?
a. SF 706.
b. SF 707.
c. SF 708.
d. SF 710. |
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Definition
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Term
Top secret label.
A. SF 706
B. SF 707
C. SF 708
D. SF 709 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Secret label.
A. SF 706
B. SF 707
C. SF 708
D. SF 709 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Unlcassified label.
A. SF 710
B. SF 711 |
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Definition
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