Term
| 221-1. What is electronic warfare? |
|
Definition
| Any military action involving the use of the EM spectrum to include DE to control the EM spectrum or to attack an enemy. |
|
|
Term
221-2. Match the electronic warfare tenets in column B with the description associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
____ (1) Use as a force multiplier.
____ (2) Dominate the EM spectrum.
____ (3) Use the EM spectrum to the advantage of friendly forces.
a. Control.
b. Exploit.
c. Enhance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 221-3. How does EA prevent or reduce an enemy’s use of the EM spectrum? |
|
Definition
| Detection, denial, disruption, deception, and destruction. |
|
|
Term
| 221-4. What is the key element in preventing jamming by friendly forces? |
|
Definition
| Proper frequency management. |
|
|
Term
| 221-5. Give some examples of EP. |
|
Definition
| Frequency agility in a radio, change pulse repetition frequency on a radar set, electronic and material shielding for systems, and processes to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrusion |
|
|
Term
| 221-6. What taskings do ES respond to? |
|
Definition
| Search for, intercept, identify, and locate sources of intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy for the purpose of threat recognition. |
|
|
Term
| 222-1. What EW effects are waged throughout the electromagnetic spectrum to secure and maintain effective control and use? |
|
Definition
| Through the integration of detection, denial, deception, disruption, and destruction. |
|
|
Term
| 222-2. Define EM deception as it applies to EW. |
|
Definition
| The deliberate radiation, reradiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection of EM energy in a manner intended to convey misleading information to an enemy or to enemy EM-dependent weapons, thereby degrading or neutralizing the enemy’s combat capability. |
|
|
Term
222-3. Match the electronic warfare effects in column B with the description associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
____ (1) Controlling the information an enemy or adversary receives, preventing the acquisition of accurate information about friendly forces. Use as a force multiplier.
____ (2) Elimination of some or all of an adversary’s electronic defenses.
____ (3) Assessing the electromagnetic environment.
____ (4) Confusing or misleading an adversary.
____ (5) Degrading or interfering with the enemy’s use of the EM spectrum.
a. Detection.
b. Denial.
c. Deception.
d. Disruption.
e. Destruction |
|
Definition
(1) b.
(2) e.
(3) a.
(4) c.
(5) d. |
|
|
Term
| 223-1. Define encryption. |
|
Definition
| The process of scrambling information so it is unintelligible to anyone except the intended recipient. |
|
|
Term
| 223-2. What is secure voice? |
|
Definition
| Devices which are designed to provide voice encryption for voice communication over a range of communication types such as radio, telephone or IP. |
|
|
Term
| 223-3. Describe the difference between symmetric and asymmetric algorithms? |
|
Definition
| Symmetric algorithms use the same key for both encryption and decryption where the decryption key is derived from encryption key. Asymmetric algorithms use a different key for encryption and decryption, the decryption key cannot be derived from the encryption key. |
|
|
Term
| 223-4. What permits the encryption key to be public and the decryption key to be private? |
|
Definition
| Asymmetric algorithms permit the encryption key to be public, allowing anyone to encrypt with the key, but the decryption key is private so only the intended recipient can decrypt the message. |
|
|
Term
223-5. Match the telecommunication encryption type in column B with the description associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
____ (1) Encryption of data.
____ (2) Software encryption.
____ (3) Encryption of voice.
____ (4) Encryption of multiplexed lines.
a. Wideband.
b. Narrowband.
c. Bulk.
d. Network. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 224-1. Describe the difference between “keyed” and “unkeyed” encryption devices. |
|
Definition
| When an encryption device is appropriately configured with the proper codes, it is considered to be “keyed.” Absence of this configuration code renders the device useless; it is then considered to be “unkeyed.” |
|
|
Term
| 224-2. If the operator uses a TOP SECRET code key, what security classification would the device take? |
|
Definition
| If the operator uses a TOP SECRET code key, the device is considered TOP SECRET. |
|
|
Term
| 224-3. How is COMSEC hardware categorized when it is empty and free of codes? |
|
Definition
| Cryptographic controlled item (CCI). |
|
|
Term
| 224-4. Describe the KY–99 encryption device? |
|
Definition
| A self-contained terminal with embedded communication security and is designed to provide secure voice and/or data communications for military customers. |
|
|
Term
| 224-5. Which encryption device is a general, high-capacity key generator used to encrypt and decrypt teletypewriter and digital data in both tactical and fixed environments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 224-6. What does the mode switch on a KY–57 do? |
|
Definition
| It allows you to transmit in the clear and secure mode and it controls the loading of encryption codes |
|
|
Term
| 224-7. When the cryptographic ignition key is removed and not collocated, how should the KIV–7 be handled? |
|
Definition
| As an UNCLASSIFIED cryptographic controlled item (CCI). |
|
|
Term
| 224-8. How do you operate a KOI–18? |
|
Definition
| Slide the key tape into the reader and pull it out at a moderate rate |
|
|
Term
| 224-9. How do you verify the presence of a code in a KYK–13? |
|
Definition
| The red indicator light blinks when you press the initiate button in the OFF/CHECK position |
|
|
Term
| 224-10. What is one advantage of the CYZ–10? |
|
Definition
| You can carry hundreds of fills |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Method of changing the encryption keys in a two-way radio system over the radio channel or over the air |
|
|
Term
| 225-2. What does OTAR give you? |
|
Definition
| A centralized control over encryption keys which reduces procedural, operational, and security problems |
|
|
Term
| 226-1. What does the FH signal to a receiver that is not synchronized to the transmitter look like? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 226-2. What type of techniques makes the HAVE QUICK and SINCGARS radios effective against jamming, compared to older systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 226-3. What is the hopping speed of the fast FH mode? |
|
Definition
| More than 1,000 hops/sec. |
|
|
Term
| 226-4. Name the types of spread spectrum systems. |
|
Definition
| Direct sequence, FH, time hopping, pulsed FM (chirp), and hybrid systems |
|
|
Term
| 226-5. What type of system uses a combination of spread spectrum methods to use the beneficial properties of the systems used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 226-6. What four properties arise as a result of the pseudorandom code sequence and the wide signal bandwidth that results from spreading? |
|
Definition
| Selective addressing code, division multiplexing, low probability of intercept, and antijamming |
|
|
Term
| 227-1. What does the acronym “ICOM” indicate? |
|
Definition
| Integrated COMSEC capability |
|
|
Term
| 227-2. Which section of the RT–1523 is responsible for modulation and demodulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 227-3. State the purpose of the interleaver during receiver operations. |
|
Definition
| Removal of synchronization and frequency-hopping information that is embedded in the signal |
|
|
Term
| 227-4. How many different impedance bands are contained in the impedance matching network? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 227-5. Which band of the impedance matching network is used if a BNC-type connector is connected to the RT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 227-6. State two conditions which will cause the SIDETONE DISABLE line to be set to logic level 1. |
|
Definition
| Temperature exceeding 105° Celsius or VSWR exceeding 5:1 |
|
|
Term
| 227-7. Name the 3 items used to select a frequency from the look-up table during FH mode. |
|
Definition
| The TRANSEC variable, FH sync time (TOD), and net ID number |
|
|
Term
| 227-8. Where does the control module obtain and execute instructions during remote operation? |
|
Definition
| From the remote I/O module |
|
|
Term
| 227-9. Which RF section module performs modulation of the carrier? |
|
Definition
| The exciter/power amplifier |
|
|
Term
| 228-1. State the purpose of HAVE QUICK radios. |
|
Definition
| To prevent unfriendly forces from interfering with our communications |
|
|
Term
| 228-2. What is the purpose of WOD and TOD? |
|
Definition
| The radios use WOD and TOD to decide which frequency they should be on at any given time. |
|
|
Term
| 228-3. Why isn’t HAVE QUICK considered a means of secure communications? |
|
Definition
| Broadband spectrum analyzers can quickly “see” each frequency as it is being used and thereby “listen” to the communications. A determined enemy can tune 7,000 receivers to the proper frequencies and listen to the communications |
|
|
Term
| 228-4. List two differences between HQI and HQII. |
|
Definition
| HQ1 allows one word to be loaded at a time; the word has no time limit for how long it can be used. HQII allows up to six words to be loaded at a time and each word expires after 24 hours |
|
|
Term
| 229-1. Which module of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 controls all activities of the transceiver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 229-2. What is the RF output power when in FM mode? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 229-3. What happens to the guard receiver when the transceiver is keyed? |
|
Definition
| The guard receiver is disabled |
|
|
Term
| 229-4. Which module determines frequency selection when in the HAVE QUICK mode? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 229-5. What causes all 6s to be displayed on the FREQ/CHAN display? |
|
Definition
| An over temperature condition |
|
|
Term
| 229-6. What does it mean if the FAULT lamp comes on? |
|
Definition
| It indicates an out-of-tolerance condition exists |
|
|
Term
| 230-1. What is JTIDS commonly referred to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 230-2. State the principle of operation that eliminates the requirement for a net control station? |
|
Definition
| TDMA eliminates the requirement for a net control station (NCS) by providing nodeless communications network architecture |
|
|
Term
| 230-3. What acts as the single time source for time synchronization of all units entering the network? |
|
Definition
| Network Time Reference (NTR). |
|
|
Term
| 230-4. What makes JTIDS resistant to jamming? |
|
Definition
| Spread-spectrum and FH techniques |
|
|
Term
| 230-5. The JTIDS terminal operates in what frequency band? |
|
Definition
| L-band (between 960 and 1215 MHz |
|
|
Term
| 231-1. Describe the enhanced position location reporting system. |
|
Definition
| EPLRS is a joint service, software programmable, networking digital radio. It provides secure, jam-resistant wireless digital connection among battlefield computers; allowing field commander’s to form a joint network. Also, it provides platform position information independent of GPS. EPLRS aids in fratricide prevention because it is highly jam resistant and thus allows weapons platforms to see where other EPLRS are located even in a congested battlefield environment. |
|
|
Term
| 231-2. What are the EPLRS system virtual circuits called? |
|
Definition
| Needlines, to set up communications between EPLRS RSs |
|
|
Term
| 231-3. Who controls the EPLRS control network, performs all the necessary calculations, routes control net messages and queries, and graphically displays the positions of all active RSs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 231-4. Name the four features the EPLRS radio sets provide. |
|
Definition
The radio sets provide the following features:
(1) Display user position location with accuracy of 10 to 30 meters for manpack, surface vehicle, and grid reference RS and 25 to 100 meters for airborne RS.
(2) Provide automatic reporting of RS position location.
(3) Provide user-to-user digital readout communications.
(4) Provide range and bearing to other RS, designated reference points, or predesignated positions. |
|
|
Term
| 231-5. Describe the situational awareness data link (SADL). |
|
Definition
| SADL integrates modified US Air Force close air support aircraft with the digitized battlefield information via EPLRS on their heads up display showing where Army/Marine/ground radios are located. |
|
|
Term
| 232-1. What is the ultimate goal for the joint tactical radio system family of radios? |
|
Definition
| To produce a family of interoperable, modular, software-defined radios that operate as nodes in a network to ensure secure wireless communication and networking services for mobile and fixed forces. |
|
|
Term
| 232-2. What does legacy interoperability deal with? |
|
Definition
| Legacy interoperability deals with the ability for JTR sets to communicate with designated radios currently fielded and, more specifically, the waveforms associated with each of those radios. |
|
|
Term
232-3. Match the JTRS waveform in column B with the description associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
____ (1) Operates as a stub network for battery-powered platforms.
____ (2) Enables high data capacity throughput and provides improved situational awareness and speed of command
____ (3) Provides beyond-line-of-sight satellite communications.
____ (4) Supports the tactical airborne domain of weapons platforms.
d. Wideband Networking.
e. Soldier Radio.
f. JAN-TE.
g. MOUS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 232-4. What can each channel of a JTR capable of executing? |
|
Definition
| Each channel of a JTR is capable (in general) of executing a different waveform (e.g. WNW, EPLRS, etc.) depending on the mission requirements determined by the operator. |
|
|
Term
| 232-5. How many programmable devices can MBITR hold? |
|
Definition
| Being software-based, MBITR holds seven programmable devices |
|
|
