What condition occurs when a signal is induced into one circuit from another?

a. Noise.

b. Jabber.

c. Crosstalk.

d. Intelligence.

a. Noise.

b. Jabber.

c. Crosstalk.

d. Intelligence.

What cabling is the most commonly used?

a. Unshielded twisted pair (UTP).

b. Screened twisted pair (ScTP).

c. Shielded twisted pair (STP).

d. Foiled twisted pair (FTP).

a. Unshielded twisted pair (UTP).

b. Screened twisted pair (ScTP).

c. Shielded twisted pair (STP).

d. Foiled twisted pair (FTP).

Which category (Cat) of cable can support data rates up to 100Mbps?

a. Cat 3.

b. Cat 5.

c. Cat 6.

d. Cat 5E.

a. Cat 3.

b. Cat 5.

c. Cat 6.

d. Cat 5E.

Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568–B standard?

a. Connector and pin assignment.

b. Subsystems of structured cabling.

c. Installation methods and practices.

d. Recommended wireless topology and distances.

a. Connector and pin assignment.

b. Subsystems of structured cabling.

c. Installation methods and practices.

d. Recommended wireless topology and distances.

Which principle is not addressed in the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568–B standard?

a. Minimum requirements for telecommunications cabling.

b. Life span of a telecommunications cabling system.

c. Connecting hardware performance specifications.

d. Color of the cable.

a. Minimum requirements for telecommunications cabling.

b. Life span of a telecommunications cabling system.

c. Connecting hardware performance specifications.

d. Color of the cable.

Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the decrease of signal strength as it travels

down the media?

a. Absorption loss.

b. Insertion loss.

c. Penetration loss.

d. Return loss.

a. Absorption loss.

b. Insertion loss.

c. Penetration loss.

d. Return loss.

Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the unwanted signal coupling from a

transmitter at the near-end into a neighboring (non-energized) pair measured at the near-end?

a. Near-end crosstalk (NEXT).

b. Powersum near-end crosstalk (PSNEXT).

c. Powersum alien near-end crosstalk (PSANEXT).

d. Powersum insertion loss to alien crosstalk ratio far-end (PSAACRF).

a. Near-end crosstalk (NEXT).

b. Powersum near-end crosstalk (PSNEXT).

c. Powersum alien near-end crosstalk (PSANEXT).

d. Powersum insertion loss to alien crosstalk ratio far-end (PSAACRF).

Which TIA/EIA parameter test is a measure of the degree of impedance mismatch between

two impedances?

a. Absorption loss.

b. Insertion loss.

c. Penetration loss.

d. Return loss.

a. Absorption loss.

b. Insertion loss.

c. Penetration loss.

d. Return loss.

Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568-B structured cabling system provides the point

at which outdoor cabling interfaces with the intrabuilding backbone cabling?

a. Entrance facility.

b. Equipment room.

c. Commercial demark.

d. Telecommunications room.

a. Entrance facility.

b. Equipment room.

c. Commercial demark.

d. Telecommunications room.

What cabling system subsystem provides any or all of the functions of a

telecommunications room?

a. Entrance facility.

b. Equipment room.

c. Systems room.

d. Work area.

a. Entrance facility.

b. Equipment room.

c. Systems room.

d. Work area.

Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568–B structured cabling can be used for

connections between floors?

a. Intra cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

a. Intra cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568–B structured cabling can be used to

interconnect buildings?

a. Inter cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

a. Inter cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568–B structured cabling extends from the

telecommunications room to the work area telecommunications information outlets

a. Intra cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

a. Intra cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

Which subsystem of the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568–B structured cabling recognizes multimode

cable?

a. Intra cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

a. Intra cabling.

b. Backbone cabling.

c. Vertical cabling.

d. Horizontal cabling.

The work area of the ANSI/TIA/EIA–568–B structured cabling system consists of all except

which components?

a. Patch cables.

b. Adapters.

c. Patch panels.

d. Station equipment.

a. Patch cables.

b. Adapters.

c. Patch panels.

d. Station equipment.

Which ANSI/TIA/EIA standard defines labeling cables and patch panels?

a. 606–A.

b. 666–A.

c. 568–A.

d. 568–B.

a. 606–A.

b. 666–A.

c. 568–A.

d. 568–B.

What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) directs implementation of protected

distribution systems?

a. 33–202.

b. 7700.

c. 7703.

d. 7007.

a. 33–202.

b. 7700.

c. 7703.

d. 7007.

Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?

a. Using Defense Courier Service.

b. Using protected distribution system.

c. Using communications security equipment.

d. Using intrusion detection optical communications system.

a. Using Defense Courier Service.

b. Using protected distribution system.

c. Using communications security equipment.

d. Using intrusion detection optical communications system..

In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?

a. Encrypted classified.

b. Encrypted unclassified.

c. Unencrypted classified.

d. Unencrypted unclassified.

a. Encrypted classified.

b. Encrypted unclassified.

c. Unencrypted classified.

d. Unencrypted unclassified.

The RED/BLACK concept has which two parts?

a. Physical separation and electromagnetic separation.

b. Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation.

c. Physical separation and electrical separation.

d. Physical separation and emission separation.

a. Physical separation and electromagnetic separation.

b. Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation.

c. Physical separation and electrical separation.

d. Physical separation and emission separation.

an unclassified term and a US Government code word that identifies a classified set of

standards.

What is the purpose of the TEMPEST program?

a. Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.

b. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.

c. Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses.

d. Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.

a. Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.

b. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.

c. Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses.

d. Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.

What is the TEMPEST program in the Air Force called?

a. Communications Security.

b. Transmission Security.

c. Emission Security.

d. Computer Security.

a. Communications Security.

b. Transmission Security.

c. Emission Security.

d. Computer Security.

What area is described as the complete building or facility area under direct physical control

within which unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by

authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?

a. Controlled Access Area (CAA).

b. Restricted Access Area (RAA).

c. Limited-Control Area (LCA).

d. Uncontrolled Access Area (UAA).

a. Controlled Access Area (CAA).

b. Restricted Access Area (RAA).

c. Limited-Control Area (LCA).

d. Uncontrolled Access Area (UAA).

Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?

a. Communications security inspections.

b. Separation inspections.

c. Line route inspections.

d. Electrical inspections.

a. Communications security inspections.

b. Separation inspections.

c. Line route inspections.

d. Electrical inspections.

Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms and inspections are recorded

where?

a. Emission security (EMSEC) log.

b. TEMPEST log.

c. Protected distribution system (PDS) log.

d. Inspection log.

a. Emission security (EMSEC) log.

b. TEMPEST log.

c. Protected distribution system (PDS) log.

d. Inspection log.

A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual

inspection that must include the

a. total surface.

b. visible area.

c. observable area.

d. concealed area.

a. total surface.

b. visible area.

c. observable area.

d. concealed area.

When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?

a. The analog signal.

b. The digital signal.

c. The multiplexed signal.

d. The sender’s private key.

a. The analog signal.

b. The digital signal.

c. The multiplexed signal.

d. The sender’s private key.

What is the difference between data encryption and voice encryption?

a. Data is faster.

b. Voice is faster.

c. In data, the encryption is handled by separate device.

d. In voice, the encryption is handled by a separate device.

a. Data is faster.

b. Voice is faster.

c. In data, the encryption is handled by separate device.

d. In voice, the encryption is handled by a separate device.

What components are used in both encryption and decryption?

a. Algorithm and key.

b. Algorithm and certificate.

c. Certificate and key.

d. Telephone and receiver.

a. Algorithm and key.

b. Algorithm and certificate.

c. Certificate and key.

d. Telephone and receiver.

What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?

Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?

a. Symmetric.

b. Asymmetric.

c. Diametric.

d. None of the above, they’re all the same.

a. Symmetric.

b. Asymmetric.

c. Diametric.

d. None of the above, they’re all the same.

Which authorities are trusted entities that issue certificates?

a. Hash.

b. Repository.

c. Certification.

d. Authentication.

a. Hash.

b. Repository.

c. Certification.

d. Authentication.

What infrastructure is a set of hardware, software, policies and procedures used to create,

manage, store, distribute and revoke digital certificates?

a. Private Key.

b. Public Key.

c. Secure Key.

d. Authentication Key.

a. Private Key.

b. Public Key.

c. Secure Key.

d. Authentication Key.

In Secure Socket Layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the

web server give to the browser?

a. Its public key.

b. Its private key.

c. Its public certificate.

d. Its private certificate.

a. Its public key.

b. Its private key.

c. Its public certificate.

d. Its private certificate.

What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by

encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?

a. Stream algorithms and block ciphers.

b. Secure algorithms and block ciphers.

c. Block algorithms and stream ciphers.

d. Block algorithms and secure ciphers.

a. Stream algorithms and block ciphers.

b. Secure algorithms and block ciphers.

c. Block algorithms and stream ciphers.

d. Block algorithms and secure ciphers.

Data Encryption Standard (DES) uses how many bits for its key?

a. 64.

b. 128.

c. 192.

d. 256.

a. 64.

b. 128.

c. 192.

d. 256.

Triple Data Encryption Standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of

encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?

a. Narrowband.

b. Network.

c. Bulk.

d. Open.

a. Narrowband.

b. Network.

c. Bulk.

d. Open.

Communications Security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny

unauthorized persons information and to ensure

a. authenticity.

b. compliance.

c. integrity.

d. validity.

a. authenticity.

b. compliance.

c. integrity.

d. validity.

The Communications Security (COMSEC) program is designed to

a. relocate classified material to strengthen security.

b. conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security.

c. deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

d. detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

a. relocate classified material to strengthen security.

b. conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security.

c. deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

d. detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

a. AFI 33–119.

b. AFI 33–129.

c. AFI 33–219.

d. AFI 33–329.

a. AFI 33–119.

b. AFI 33–129.

c. AFI 33–219.

d. AFI 33–329.

Which Communications Security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to

deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?

a. Cyptosecurity.

b. Physical security.

c. Emission security.

d. Transmission security.

a. Cyptosecurity.

b. Physical security.

c. Emission security.

d. Transmission security.

Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and

destroy Communications Security (COMSEC) material?

a. AFI 33–201, Volume 1.

b. AFI 33–202, Volume 1.

c. AFI 31–201, Volume 1.

d. AFI 31–202, Volume 1.

a. AFI 33–201, Volume 1.

b. AFI 33–202, Volume 1.

c. AFI 31–201, Volume 1.

d. AFI 31–202, Volume 1.

Top secret keying material must be handled, stored, transported and destroyed under

a. courier control.

b. COMSEC manager control.

c. TPI control.

d. CRO control.

a. courier control.

b. COMSEC manager control.

c. TPI control.

d. CRO control.

Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a Communications Security

(COMSEC) package?

a. Standard Form (SF) 135.

b. SF 153.

c. SF 351.

d. SF 531.

a. Standard Form (SF) 135.

b. SF 153.

c. SF 351.

d. SF 531.

When a security container is opened, it is inventoried at the

a. beginning of the week.

b. beginning of the duty day.

c. end of the week or month.

d. end of the shift or duty day.

a. beginning of the week.

b. beginning of the duty day.

c. end of the week or month.

d. end of the shift or duty day.

Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?

a. AF Form 1019.

b. AF Form 1109.

c. AF Form 1119.

d. AF Form 1190.

a. AF Form 1019.

b. AF Form 1109.

c. AF Form 1119.

d. AF Form 1190.

What is the newest generation of secure voice telephone?

a. Secure Telephone Unit (STU).

b. Cryptographic Telephone (CT).

c. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

d. Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone).

a. Secure Telephone Unit (STU).

b. Cryptographic Telephone (CT).

c. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

d. Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone).

Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network

(ISDN)?

a. Secure Telephone Unit (STU).

b. Cryptographic Telephone (CT).

c. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

d. Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone).

a. Secure Telephone Unit (STU).

b. Cryptographic Telephone (CT).

c. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).

d. Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone).

The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) consists of what two parts?

a. Host terminal and removable security core.

b. Security core and removable host terminal.

c. Host terminal and removable secret core.

d. Secret core and removable host terminal.

a. Host terminal and removable security core.

b. Security core and removable host terminal.

c. Host terminal and removable secret core.

d. Secret core and removable host terminal.

The Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with the

a. STU-III.

b. satellite telephone.

c. cellular telephone.

d. land mobile radio.

a. STU-III.

b. satellite telephone.

c. cellular telephone.

d. land mobile radio.

Which port on the office version Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) can be used to

connect to a fax machine?

a. Universal Serial Bus (USB).

b. EIA 530.

c. RS–232.

d. Firewire.

a. Universal Serial Bus (USB).

b. EIA 530.

c. RS–232.

d. Firewire.

What provides the Secure Telephone Equipment (STE) with its security services?

a. Fortezza card.

b. Crypto ignition key.

c. Common access card.

d. Traffic Encryption Key.

a. Fortezza card.

b. Crypto ignition key.

c. Common access card.

d. Traffic Encryption Key.

The KIV–7 cryptographic device provides protection up to what classification level?

a. Secret.

b. Top Secret.

c. Confidential.

d. For Official Use Only (FOUO).

a. Secret.

b. Top Secret.

c. Confidential.

d. For Official Use Only (FOUO).

The KIV–7 does not support which set of electrical standards?

a. RS–422.

b. EIA–644.

c. EIA–530.

d. RS–232.

a. RS–422.

b. EIA–644.

c. EIA–530.

d. RS–232.

TACLANE–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide

confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for which type of network?

a. Serial networks.

b. Tactical networks.

c. Point to point connections.

d. Internet Protocol networks.

a. Serial networks.

b. Tactical networks.

c. Point to point connections.

d. Internet Protocol networks.

The KG–175D is what type of Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)?

a. TACLANE–Classic.

b. TACLANE–E–100.

c. TACLANE–Duro.

d. TACLANE–Micro.

a. TACLANE–Classic.

b. TACLANE–E–100.

c. TACLANE–Duro.

d. TACLANE–Micro.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption

device for Internet Protocol (IP)

a. version 4 only.

b. version 5 only.

c. version 4 and version 5.

d. version 4 and version 6.

a. version 4 only.

b. version 5 only.

c. version 4 and version 5.

d. version 4 and version 6.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro may be equipped to

handle all of the following types of networks except?

a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM).

b. Gigabit Ethernet.

c. Fast Ethernet.

d. Wireless.

a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM).

b. Gigabit Ethernet.

c. Fast Ethernet.

d. Wireless.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet

Protocol (IP) address via Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?

a. Static IP only.

b. Plaintext only

c. Ciphertext only.

d. Ciphertext or plaintext.

a. Static IP only.

b. Plaintext only

c. Ciphertext only.

d. Ciphertext or plaintext.

The Tactical Local Area Network Encryptor (TACLANE)–Micro can be used to overlay

what type of networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures?

a. Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Networks.

b. Secret Internet Protocol Router Networks.

c. Other public or private networks.

d. Secure Virtual Networks.

a. Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Networks.

b. Secret Internet Protocol Router Networks.

c. Other public or private networks.

d. Secure Virtual Networks.

Which common crypto fill device is battery powered and has no internal memory storage?

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

Which common crypto fill device is a hand-held personal computer compatible device and

is a Cryptographic Controlled Item (CCI)?

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

Which common crypto fill device is capable of downloading cryptographic keys to over 70

end item Communication Security (COMSEC) equipment and communications systems?

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

Which common crypto fill device uses the Windows CE operating system?

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

a. KOI–18 General Purpose Tape Reader.

b. KYK–13 Electronic Transfer Device.

c. AN/PYQ–10 Simple Key Loader.

d. AN/CYZ–10 Data Transfer Device.

In Remedy, tickets can be assigned to whom?

a. A resolution group only.

b. A specific technician only.

c. A resolution group or specific technician.

d. Remedy automatically assigns tickets.

a. A resolution group only.

b. A specific technician only.

c. A resolution group or specific technician.

d. Remedy automatically assigns tickets.

Who may close tickets in Remedy?

a. Customer.

b. Technician.

c. Shift lead.

d. Help Desk.

a. Customer.

b. Technician.

c. Shift lead.

d. Help Desk.

Only after what, are tickets allowed to be placed in the “Closed” status in Remedy?

a. Confirmation has been received from the customer.

b. Step-by-step fix actions have been annotated.

c. 24 hours after repairing the problem.

d. Verification by the Help Desk.

a. Confirmation has been received from the customer.

b. Step-by-step fix actions have been annotated.

c. 24 hours after repairing the problem.

d. Verification by the Help Desk.

Integrate Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Air Force enterprise-level automated

maintenance management information system for

a. weapons systems and support equipment.

b. weapons systems and operations equipment.

c. communication systems and support equipment.

d. communication systems and operations equipment.

a. weapons systems and support equipment.

b. weapons systems and operations equipment.

c. communication systems and support equipment.

d. communication systems and operations equipment.

Which is not a function that maintainers perform with the Integrate Maintenance Data

System (IMDS)?

a. Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.

b. Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.

c. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.

d. Provide status and inventory data.

a. Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.

b. Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.

c. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.

d. Provide status and inventory data.

The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) is part of what?

a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

b. Telecommunications Management System (TMS).

c. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

d. Automated Information System (AIS).

a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

b. Telecommunications Management System (TMS).

c. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

d. Automated Information System (AIS).

The Asset Inventory Management (AIM) system includes what type of database and is

located where?

a. Access database at Randolph AFB.

b. Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

c. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

d. Oracle database at Randolph AFB.

a. Access database at Randolph AFB.

b. Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

c. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.

d. Oracle database at Randolph AFB.

Which voicemail system was one of the earliest digital voicemail systems running on a

private branch exchange (PBX)?

a. Nortel mail.

b. Meridian mail.

c. Avaya mail.

d. Call pilot.

a. Nortel mail.

b. Meridian mail.

c. Avaya mail.

d. Call pilot.

Which way to send a network message using the Call Pilot voice mail system is only

available with the Audio Message Interchange Specification (AMIS) protocol?

a. Network delivery mailbox.

b. Site-based addressing.

c. Direct addressing.

d. Auto Attendant.

a. Network delivery mailbox.

b. Site-based addressing.

c. Direct addressing.

d. Auto Attendant.

Which application has not been used for automating central office records?

a. CAIRS

b. Telephone Plant Automated Records System (Telpars).

c. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

d. Microsoft Access.

a. CAIRS

b. Telephone Plant Automated Records System (Telpars).

c. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

d. Microsoft Access.

The Air Force has adopted Telecommunications Management System (TMS) as the

standard application to maintain and generate

a. telephone numbers.

b. central office records.

c. global office records.

d. base office records.

a. telephone numbers.

b. central office records.

c. global office records.

d. base office records.

Which feature is an automated Telecommunications Management System (TMS)

advantage?

a. Design.

b. Site specific.

c. Software compatibility.

d. Data network restrictions.

a. Design.

b. Site specific.

c. Software compatibility.

d. Data network restrictions.

Which feature is an automated Telecommunications Management System (TMS)

advantage?

a. Site specific.

b. Software compatibility.

c. Data network restrictions.

d. Network management functions.

a. Site specific.

b. Software compatibility.

c. Data network restrictions.

d. Network management functions.

Which Telecommunications Management System (TMS) network management functional

area contains line, circuit, cable, and customer information?

a. Fault management.

b. Security management.

c. Performance management.

d. Configuration management.

a. Fault management.

b. Security management.

c. Performance management.

d. Configuration management.

Which network management functional area monitors and audits the Telecommunications

Management System (TMS) operating level?

a. Fault management.

b. Security management.

c. Performance management.

d. Configuration management.

a. Fault management.

b. Security management.

c. Performance management.

d. Configuration management.

What are the two types of accounts supported by Windows operation systems?

a. Network and domain.

b. Network and local.

c. Domain and local.

d. User and email.

a. Network and domain.

b. Network and local.

c. Domain and local.

d. User and email.

Which is not a use for local user accounts?

a. To have a computer act as a stand-alone system.

b. To control a user’s permissions on the local network.

c. To limit a user’s access to the printers on the local machine.

d. To limit a user’s access to the programs on the local machine.

a. To have a computer act as a stand-alone system.

b. To control a user’s permissions on the local network.

c. To limit a user’s access to the printers on the local machine.

d. To limit a user’s access to the programs on the local machine.

Why are users required to change their passwords upon logging onto the network for the

first time?

a. To ensure users don’t create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place.

b. To ensure users understand how to create a password.

c. To ensure the integrity of each user’s unique password.

d. To ensure users remember their unique password.

a. To ensure users don’t create vulnerability by leaving the default password in place.

b. To ensure users understand how to create a password.

c. To ensure the integrity of each user’s unique password.

d. To ensure users remember their unique password.

What publication governs the format of Alias names for email accounts?

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–119.

b. Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) 8502.

c. AFI 33–201.

d. AFSSI 7700.

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 33–119.

b. Air Force System Security Instruction (AFSSI) 8502.

c. AFI 33–201.

d. AFSSI 7700.