The process of condensation occurs when air particles are

a. pressurized causing them to move closer together.

b. heated rapidly causing them to spread farther apart.

c. heated rapidly causing them to move closer together.

d. pressurized causing them to be released to the atmosphere.

a. pressurized causing them to move closer together.

b. heated rapidly causing them to spread farther apart.

c. heated rapidly causing them to move closer together.

d. pressurized causing them to be released to the atmosphere.

In hertz (Hz), what range of sound can the human ear detect?

a. 200 to 3,000.

b. 20 to 20,000.

c. 20 to 200,000.

d. up to 2,600.

a. 200 to 3,000.

b. 20 to 20,000.

c. 20 to 200,000.

d. up to 2,600.

The loudness of a sound is closely related to what part of the sine wave?

a. Amplitude.

b. Frequency.

c. Tone.

d. Pitch.

a. Amplitude.

b. Frequency.

c. Tone.

d. Pitch.

Noise may be introduced into speech signals by thermal agitation and

a. power variations.

b. amplitude variations.

c. black body radiation.

d. molecular breakdown.

a. power variations.

b. amplitude variations.

c. black body radiation.

d. molecular breakdown.

In hertz (Hz), what is the actual voice frequency band?

a. 300 to 1,600.

b. 300 to 2,600.

c. 300 to 3,400.

d. 300 to 3,800.

a. 300 to 1,600.

b. 300 to 2,600.

c. 300 to 3,400.

d. 300 to 3,800.

Which models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS) family are commonly

used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

a. DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

b. DMS–100/200 and MSL–100.

c. DMS–100/200 and DMS–200.

d. DMS–200 and MSL–100.

a. DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

b. DMS–100/200 and MSL–100.

c. DMS–100/200 and DMS–200.

d. DMS–200 and MSL–100.

Which model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 family switches is installed in compact modular cabinets?

a. System load (SL)–1.

b. DMS–100.

c. DMS–200.

d. Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

a. System load (SL)–1.

b. DMS–100.

c. DMS–200.

d. Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100 will

support?

a. 10,000.

b. 30,000.

c. 100,000.

d. 300,000.

a. 10,000.

b. 30,000.

c. 100,000.

d. 300,000.

Which type link is normally used to interconnect two peripheral modules (PM) in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?

a. Digital signal (DS)–1.

b. DS–30A.

c. DS–32.

d. T1A.

a. Digital signal (DS)–1.

b. DS–30A.

c. DS–32.

d. T1A.

Which type link is normally used to interconnect two peripheral modules (PM) in the Digital

Multiplex System (DMS)?

a. Control node (CN).

b. Peripheral module (PM).

c. Message controller (MC).

d. Central control.

a. Control node (CN).

b. Peripheral module (PM).

c. Message controller (MC).

d. Central control.

What is the mounting bracket called on which transmission or switching equipment is

mounted in a Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?

a. Bay.

b. Card.

c. Shelf.

d. Frame.

a. Bay.

b. Card.

c. Shelf.

d. Frame.

What contains bays of the same functional equipment

a. Bay.

b. Card.

c. Shelf.

d. Frame.

a. Bay.

b. Card.

c. Shelf.

d. Frame.

Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS) component uses 16–bit Motorola 68000 or 8bit

Intel microprocessors?

a. A device controller.

b. The network message controller.

c. A peripheral module’s (PM) peripheral processor (PP).

d. The computing module’s (CM) central processing unit (CPU).

a. A device controller.

b. The network message controller.

c. A peripheral module’s (PM) peripheral processor (PP).

d. The computing module’s (CM) central processing unit (CPU).

How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS) 30 speech link carry?

a. 30.

b. 32.

c. 34.

d. 36.

a. 30.

b. 32.

c. 34.

d. 36.

Up to how many duplicated digital signals (DS)–30 links are used to connect a line group controller (LGC) to the network module (NM)?

a. 6.

b. 8.

c. 16.

d. 24.

a. 6.

b. 8.

c. 16.

d. 24.

What type of digital signal (DS) links are used to connect the Digital Multiplex System

(DMS)-Core and the DMS-Bus?

a. 1.

b. 30.

c. 30A.

d. 512.

a. 1.

b. 30.

c. 30A.

d. 512.

How many inter message switch links (IMSL) can be configured in a SuperNode?

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 8.

d. 16.

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 8.

d. 16.

Where are the system clocks located within the SuperNode?

a. Network module (NM).

b. Peripheral module (PM).

c. Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Bus.

d. DMS-Core

a. Network module (NM).

b. Peripheral module (PM).

c. Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Bus.

d. DMS-Core

What type of digital signal (DS) protocol is used as a message carrier between the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Bus and the network modules (NM) and input/output controller (IOC)?

a. 1.

b. 3.

c. 30.

d. 512.

a. 1.

b. 3.

c. 30.

d. 512.

Where are the DMS-Core and DMS-Bus housed?

a. Line trunk controller (LTC).

b. Dual plane combined core (DPCC).

c. Multipoint controller (MC).

d. Multipoint control unit (MCU).

a. Line trunk controller (LTC).

b. Dual plane combined core (DPCC).

c. Multipoint controller (MC).

d. Multipoint control unit (MCU).

What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process?

a. Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.

b. A binary code number is assigned to the sample.

c. The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.

d. The analog signal is band-limited.

a. Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.

b. A binary code number is assigned to the sample.

c. The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.

d. The analog signal is band-limited.

In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized samples into a binary

word is called

a. encoding.

b. sampling.

c. quantization.

d. band limiting.

a. encoding.

b. sampling.

c. quantization.

d. band limiting.

What is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair?

a. Time code multiplexing.

b. Pulse code modulation.

c. Pulse amplitude modulation.

d. Time division multiplexing.

a. Time code multiplexing.

b. Pulse code modulation.

c. Pulse amplitude modulation.

d. Time division multiplexing.

Each 125μs time period in the digital signal (DS) 30 signaling format (used within the voice

network system) is called a

a. span.

b. frame.

c. channel.

d. snapshot.

a. span.

b. frame.

c. channel.

d. snapshot.

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can combine voice and data services over the same wires because it uses

a. Internet data lines.

b. digital subscriber lines.

c. direct connection lines.

d. standard telephone lines.

a. Internet data lines.

b. digital subscriber lines.

c. direct connection lines.

d. standard telephone lines.

What type of information is transmitted on a Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) B

channel?

a. Call control.

b. Supervisory.

c. Signaling.

d. User.

a. Call control.

b. Supervisory.

c. Signaling.

d. User.

What are the two major established Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) transmission rates?

a. Bearer rate interface and data rate interface.

b. Basic rate interface and primary rate interface.

c. Basic rate interface and secondary rate interface.

d. Primary rate interface and secondary rate interface.

a. Bearer rate interface and data rate interface.

b. Basic rate interface and primary rate interface.

c. Basic rate interface and secondary rate interface.

d. Primary rate interface and secondary rate interface.

What is the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) R interface?

a. Connection point between a non-ISDN compatible device and a (TA).

b.Connection point between a network termination 1 device and the ISDN.

c. Incoming connection point of a network termination 2 device.

d. Outgoing connection point of a network termination 2 device

a. Connection point between a non-ISDN compatible device and a (TA).

b.Connection point between a network termination 1 device and the ISDN.

c. Incoming connection point of a network termination 2 device.

d. Outgoing connection point of a network termination 2 device

The Network Layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides the

a. physical characteristics between the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) interface and the network.

b. logical links between customer equipment and the circuit switch.

c. final preparation of the signal before it is routed.

d. actual routing of the signal.

a. physical characteristics between the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) interface and

the network.

b. logical links between customer equipment and the circuit switch.

c. final preparation of the signal before it is routed.

d. actual routing of the signal.

What circuit board in the REDCOM switch provides two signaling channels and is only

necessary when interfacing with an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)-capable switch?

a. T1 legacy to Internet.

b. Message transceiver interface.

c. T1 direct digital interface.

d. Basic rate U.

a. T1 legacy to Internet.

b. Message transceiver interface.

c. T1 direct digital interface.

d. Basic rate U.

One of the main purposes of the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) handset

telephone test set is to

a. detect noise.

b. insert tones.

c. verify a dial tone.

d. insert signal delay.

a. detect noise.

b. insert tones.

c. verify a dial tone.

d. insert signal delay.

What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to

digital signals?

a. Camera.

b. Coder/decoder (CODEC).

c. Network termination 1.

d. Central processing unit (CPU).

a. Camera.

b. Coder/decoder (CODEC).

c. Network termination 1.

d. Central processing unit (CPU).

How many channels are used when a voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is

established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another IP host?

a. One, they share the same channel.

b. Two, one for each direction.

c. Three, two to transmit/receive and one to signal.

d. Four, two to transmit and two to receive.

a. One, they share the same channel.

b. Two, one for each direction.

c. Three, two to transmit/receive and one to signal.

d. Four, two to transmit and two to receive.

What component of voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that

provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch

circuit networks (SCN)?

a. Gateway.

b. Gatekeeper.

c. Terminal adapter.

d. Multipoint control unit (MCU).

a. Gateway.

b. Gatekeeper.

c. Terminal adapter.

d. Multipoint control unit (MCU).

What component of voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) provides call management

functions in a defined local area called a zone?

a. Gateway.

b. Gatekeeper.

c. Terminal adapter.

d. Multipoint control unit (MCU).

a. Gateway.

b. Gatekeeper.

c. Terminal adapter.

d. Multipoint control unit (MCU).

How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to

implement voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

a. Less than 50.

b. Less than 150.

c. Greater than 50.

d. Greater than 150.

a. Less than 50.

b. Less than 150.

c. Greater than 50.

d. Greater than 150.

What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a

reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?

a. Quality of service (QoS).

b. Remote control protocol (RCP).

c. Forward error correction (FEC).

d. Phase-locked loop (PLL).

a. Quality of service (QoS).

b. Remote control protocol (RCP).

c. Forward error correction (FEC).

d. Phase-locked loop (PLL).

What are frequencies from 30 to 300 megahertz (MHz) internationally designated as?

a. High.

b. Medium.

c. Very high.

d. Ultra high.

a. High.

b. Medium.

c. Very high.

d. Ultra high.

The ultra high frequency designation applies to frequencies from

a. 3 to 30 megahertz (MHz).

b. 300 to 3,000 MHz.

c. 3 to 30 gigahertz (GHz).

d. 30 to 300 GHz.

a. 3 to 30 megahertz (MHz).

b. 300 to 3,000 MHz.

c. 3 to 30 gigahertz (GHz).

d. 30 to 300 GHz.

Which of the following frequencies has the shortest wavelength?

a. 14 kilohertz (kHz).

b. 1.4 megahertz (MHz).

c. 14 MHz.

d. 140 MHz.

a. 14 kilohertz (kHz).

b. 1.4 megahertz (MHz).

c. 14 MHz.

d. 140 MHz.

A mode of operation in which communication is possible between two or more stations, in both

directions, using the same frequency, is called

a. simplex.

b. duplex.

c. hybrid.

d. half-duplex.

a. simplex.

b. duplex.

c. hybrid.

d. half-duplex.

What communication mode(s) of operation allows two or more stations to send intelligence in

both directions but not simultaneously?

a. Duplex only.

b. Half duplex only.

c. Duplex and half duplex.

d. Simplex and half duplex.

a. Duplex only.

b. Half duplex only.

c. Duplex and half duplex.

d. Simplex and half duplex.

Producing radio frequency (RF) energy and radiating useful signals into space is the purpose of

the

a. receiver.

b. transmitter.

c. antenna coupler.

d. transmission lines.

a. receiver.

b. transmitter.

c. antenna coupler.

d. transmission lines.

What type modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission?

a. Frequency.

b. Amplitude.

c. Phased.

d. Pulse.

a. Frequency.

b. Amplitude.

c. Phased.

d. Pulse.

The ability to maintain a constant output carrier frequency refers to a transmitter’s frequency

a. accuracy.

b. distortion.

c. sensitivity.

d. signal-to-noise ratio.

a. accuracy.

b. distortion.

c. sensitivity.

d. signal-to-noise ratio.

The process of mixing or combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device in an amplitude

modulated (AM) receiver is called

a. limiting.

b. amplifying.

c. heterodyning.

d. discriminating.

a. limiting.

b. amplifying.

c. heterodyning.

d. discriminating.

What component of a frequency modulated (FM) receiver removes the original signal from the

sidebands and recreates the audio intelligence?

a. Limiter.

b. Detector.

c. Amplifier.

d. Discriminator.

a. Limiter.

b. Detector.

c. Amplifier.

d. Discriminator.

What characteristic enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal from several closely spaced

stations or from interfering frequencies?

a. Sensitivity.

b. Selectivity.

c. Fade margin.

d. Thermal noise.

a. Sensitivity.

b. Selectivity.

c. Fade margin.

d. Thermal noise.

The total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance, capacitive reactance, and inductive

reactance are formulated together is called

a. attenuation.

b. impedance.

c. resistance.

d. distortion.

a. attenuation.

b. impedance.

c. resistance.

d. distortion.

What transmission line is very common in both fixed and tactical application?

a. Waveguide.

b. Twisted pair.

c. Shielded pair.

d. Flexible coax.

a. Waveguide.

b. Twisted pair.

c. Shielded pair.

d. Flexible coax.

What field provides the basis of radio frequency (RF) communications by detaching from the

conductor and traveling through space?

a. Electric.

b. Magnetic.

c. Induction.

d. Radiation.

a. Electric.

b. Magnetic.

c. Induction.

d. Radiation.

For best communications, the transmitting antenna

a. should be circular and the receiving antenna horizontal.

b. should be vertical and receiving antenna horizontal.

c. should be horizontal and receiving antenna vertical.

d. and receiving antenna should have the same polarization.

a. should be circular and the receiving antenna horizontal.

b. should be vertical and receiving antenna horizontal.

c. should be horizontal and receiving antenna vertical.

d. and receiving antenna should have the same polarization.

What standard antenna is used for antenna gain comparison?

a. Whip.

b. Dipole.

c. Isotropic.

d. Parabolic.

a. Whip.

b. Dipole.

c. Isotropic.

d. Parabolic.

When the gain of an anisotropic radiator is compared to the isotropic radiator, the stronger

signal of the directional antenna is expressed as

a. decibels (dB) gain.

b. dB plus.

c. over voltage.

d. over watts.

a. decibels (dB) gain.

b. dB plus.

c. over voltage.

d. over watts.

What is the shortest wavelength an antenna can be made resonant?

a. Quarter.

b. Half.

c. One.

d. Two.

a. Quarter.

b. Half.

c. One.

d. Two.

What tuning devices are adjusted when tuning the resonant transmission line-resonant antenna

connection?

a. Capacitor and resistors.

b. Inductors and resistors.

c. Inductors and capacitors.

d. Inductors, capacitors, and resistors.

a. Capacitor and resistors.

b. Inductors and resistors.

c. Inductors and capacitors.

d. Inductors, capacitors, and resistors.

What limits a direct wave to normally less than 20 miles?

a. Curvature of the earth.

b. Buildings in the area.

c. Topographic features.

d. Physical limitation of the frequency in use.

a. Curvature of the earth.

b. Buildings in the area.

c. Topographic features.

d. Physical limitation of the frequency in use.

Which type of precipitation attenuates radio frequency (RF) energy just like rain?

a. Ice.

b. Fog.

c. Hail.

d. Snow.

a. Ice.

b. Fog.

c. Hail.

d. Snow.

What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?

a. Percentage of modulation.

b. Signal-to-noise.

c. Selectivity.

d. Distortion.

a. Percentage of modulation.

b. Signal-to-noise.

c. Selectivity.

d. Distortion.

What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI) do you use for guidance when determining a

technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?

Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and

control?

a. Pager.

b. Land mobile radio (LMR).

c. Family radio service (FRS).

d. Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR).

a. Pager.

b. Land mobile radio (LMR).

c. Family radio service (FRS).

d. Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR).

Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device’s original intent was for use

by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?

a. Pager.

b. Land mobile radio (LMR).

c. Family radio service (FRS).

d. Personal digital assistant (PDA).

a. Pager.

b. Land mobile radio (LMR).

c. Family radio service (FRS).

d. Personal digital assistant (PDA).

What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated

frequency?

a. Time division multiple access (TDMA).

b. Personal communications services (PCS).

c. Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

d. Global system for mobile communications (GSM).

a. Time division multiple access (TDMA).

b. Personal communications services (PCS).

c. Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

d. Global system for mobile communications (GSM).

Cell sites are generally thought of as being a

a. square.

b. octagon.

c. hexagon.

d. pentagon.

a. square.

b. octagon.

c. hexagon.

d. pentagon.

Which conventional land mobile radio (LMR) device has a transmitting power of 5 or 6 watts?

a. Portable.

b. Mobile.

c. Repeater.

d. Base station.

a. Portable.

b. Mobile.

c. Repeater.

d. Base station.

What conventional land mobile radio (LMR) device serves as the hub of a net?

a. Portable.

b. Mobile.

c. Repeater.

d. Base station.

a. Portable.

b. Mobile.

c. Repeater.

d. Base station.

In trunked land mobile radio (LMR) systems, different user groups are known as

a. talkgroups.

b. channels.

c. packets.

d. nets.

a. talkgroups.

b. channels.

c. packets.

d. nets.

Which trunking user equipment has the capability to monitor more than one talkgroup at a time?

a. Mobiles.

b. Portables.

c. Control stations.

d. Dispatch consoles.

a. Mobiles.

b. Portables.

c. Control stations.

d. Dispatch consoles.

What enhanced features of the trunking land mobile radio (LMR) allows the system manager to

completely disable radios in the field from the system terminal?

a. Scan function.

b. Squelch circuit.

c. Selective radio inhibit.

d. Talkgroup selector switch.

a. Scan function.

b. Squelch circuit.

c. Selective radio inhibit.

d. Talkgroup selector switch.

In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on

Procurement of Mobile Satellite Services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DOD to use

additional MSS providers for

What type areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated

into?

a. Geographical.

b. Continental.

c. Regional.

d. Ocean.

a. Geographical.

b. Continental.

c. Regional.

d. Ocean.

Which International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system has a land mobile

terminal, typically has a one meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?

a. B.

b. M.

c. Aero I.

d. Mini-M.

a. B.

b. M.

c. Aero I.

d. Mini-M.

What are the two basic groups of channel banks?

a. Multiplexers and channel units.

b. Multiplexers and demultiplexers.

c. Channel and common equipment units.

d. Common equipment units and demultiplexers.

a. Multiplexers and channel units.

b. Multiplexers and demultiplexers.

c. Channel and common equipment units.

d. Common equipment units and demultiplexers.

What is the transmission rate, in megabits per second (Mbps), of Mode 3 in channel bank

operations?

a. 1.544.

b. 2.176.

c. 3.153.

d. 6.312.

a. 1.544.

b. 2.176.

c. 3.153.

d. 6.312.

What function does the line driver unit (LDU) perform for a channel bank unit?

a. Multiplexing.

b. Clock generation.

c. Digital/analog conversion.

d. Transmit/receive signaling.

a. Multiplexing.

b. Clock generation.

c. Digital/analog conversion.

d. Transmit/receive signaling.

What type of shelf contains the DC552A channel service unit (CSU)?

a. Modem.

b. Interface.

c. Data store.

d. Processor.

a. Modem.

b. Interface.

c. Data store.

d. Processor.

What is another name for a stuffing or S-bit in relationship to a channel service unit (CSU)?

a. Parity.

b. Timing.

c. Framing.

d. Sequence.

a. Parity.

b. Timing.

c. Framing.

d. Sequence.

What component is installed to provide a dataset protection against accidental shorts to –52

volts direct current (VDC) analog lines?

a. Digital service unit (DSU).

b. Channel service unit (CSU).

c. Line T–1 interface (LTI).

d. Load line interface (LLI).

a. Digital service unit (DSU).

b. Channel service unit (CSU).

c. Line T–1 interface (LTI).

d. Load line interface (LLI).

What Meridian application provides local area network (LAN) connectivity so you can share equipment, data files, and application software utilizing a modem?

a. CompuCALL.

b. E-mail service.

c. Visual Screen List Editing.

d. Simplified message desk interface.

a. CompuCALL.

b. E-mail service.

c. Visual Screen List Editing.

d. Simplified message desk interface.

Where is the optional supervisory lamp panel for the 291 Conference/Alerting System

usually installed?

a. Job control.

b. The base operator.

c. The master station.

d. Central security control.

a. Job control.

b. The base operator.

c. The master station.

d. Central security control.

Which type of equipment modules within the 291 Conference/Alerting System provide the

necessary amplification, ringing, timing, tone supply, and fusing needed for system operation?

a. Central office.

b. Internal control.

c. External control.

d. Station interface.

a. Central office.

b. Internal control.

c. External control.

d. Station interface.

The power plant ground supply will not provide

a. personnel and equipment protection.

b. system operation return paths.

c. audio and radio frequency noise sinks.

d. digital signal grounds.

a. personnel and equipment protection.

b. system operation return paths.

c. audio and radio frequency noise sinks.

d. digital signal grounds.

Alarm and control inputs detected by the alarm system hardware are interfaced with the

alarm system software through

a. the meridian trunk module.

b. the office alarm unit.

c. scan points.

d. signal points.

a. the meridian trunk module.

b. the office alarm unit.

c. scan points.

d. signal points.

What hardware entity contains the alarm system backup circuits which generate an alarm if

the office alarm unit fails?

a. The master control.

b. The central processing unit.

c. A meridian trunk module.

d. Meridian trunk module number 8.

a. The master control.

b. The central processing unit.

c. A meridian trunk module.

d. Meridian trunk module number 8.

The primary reason you measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors

before removing and replacing them is to

a. make sure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

b. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

c. avoid activating alarm circuits.

d. verify the circuit is not in use.

a. make sure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

b. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

c. avoid activating alarm circuits.

d. verify the circuit is not in use.

In addition to fiber-optic and copper cables, what do we use to interconnect integrated

communications access package access nodes on a deployed base within the same theater area?

a. Microwave and laser.

b. Microwave only.

c. Satellite and laser.

d. Satellite only.

a. Microwave and laser.

b. Microwave only.

c. Satellite and laser.

d. Satellite only.

What is the design architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) metropolitan

area network (MAN)?

a. Point-point.

b. Hub-spoke.

c. Point-hub.

d. Spoke-point.

a. Point-point.

b. Hub-spoke.

c. Point-hub.

d. Spoke-point.

What type of connectivity does a voice backbone in the theater deployable communications

(TDC) architecture provide?

What equipment is included in a customer access node (CAN) to provide the inter-site

connectivity?

a. Troposcatter-Satellite Support Radio.

b. Voice switch and Promina multiplexer.

c. Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST).

d. Secure telephone unit and AN/FCC–100 multiplexer.

a. Troposcatter-Satellite Support Radio.

b. Voice switch and Promina multiplexer.

c. Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST).

d. Secure telephone unit and AN/FCC–100 multiplexer.

What major equipment in a theater deployable communications (TDC) package provides

mobile units with flexible, lightweight, secure, modular, and integrated deployable

communications?

a. (TSSR) and (ICAP).

b. LMST and ICAP.

c. TSSR only.

d. LMST only.

a. (TSSR) and (ICAP).

b. LMST and ICAP.

c. TSSR only.

d. LMST only.

What is the long-haul transmission component of Theater Deployable Communications

(TDC)?

a. Ground mobile forces (GMF) terminal.

b. Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST).

c. AN/TRC–170, Digital Troposcatter Radio Terminal Set.

d. AN/TSQ–111, Communications Nodal Control Element.

a. Ground mobile forces (GMF) terminal.

b. Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST).

c. AN/TRC–170, Digital Troposcatter Radio Terminal Set.

d. AN/TSQ–111, Communications Nodal Control Element.

What’s the difference between the basic access module (BAM) and the configurable access

module (CAM)?

a. CAM provides a secure data network to local subscribers.

b. BAM provides a secure data network to local subscribers.

c. CAM has a fixed capability.

d. BAM has a fixed capability.

a. CAM provides a secure data network to local subscribers.

b. BAM provides a secure data network to local subscribers.

c. CAM has a fixed capability.

d. BAM has a fixed capability.

What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) node module provides the radio

frequency (RF) line-of-sight (LOS) link function for internodal connectivity?

a. Microwave.

b. Multiplexer.

c. Crypto.

d. Laser.

a. Microwave.

b. Multiplexer.

c. Crypto.

d. Laser.

Upon arrival in a theater, what frequency band does the Lightweight Multiband Satellite

Terminal (LMST) use for initial communications connectivity to the Defense Satellite

Communications System (DSCS)?

a. C only.

b. X only.

c. C and Ku.

d. X and Ku.

a. C only.

b. X only.

c. C and Ku.

d. X and Ku.

What theater deployable communications (TDC) system provides message handling

services?

a. Unit Level Message Switch.

b. Automatic Message Switching Set.

c. AN/TGC–27 Deployable Message Center.

d. Stand-Alone Message Processing System.

a. Unit Level Message Switch.

b. Automatic Message Switching Set.

c. AN/TGC–27 Deployable Message Center.

d. Stand-Alone Message Processing System.

What must customers do to connect telephones and computer workstations to the theater

deployable communications (TDC) backbone network?

a. Adhere to various open system standards and interfaces such as Ethernet.

b. Adhere to military encryption standards on all connections.

c. Provide an (IDNX)/Promina multiplexer.

d. Provide fiber optic cables and connectors.

a. Adhere to various open system standards and interfaces such as Ethernet.

b. Adhere to military encryption standards on all connections.

c. Provide an (IDNX)/Promina multiplexer.

d. Provide fiber optic cables and connectors.