Term
Describe non-synovial joints |
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Definition
bones are joined by fibrous tissue |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
fibrous bands bone to bone; prevents unwanted movement directions |
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Term
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Definition
enclosed sac filled with synovial fluid |
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: bend limb |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: straighten limb |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move limb away from midline |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move limb toward midline |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: turn forearm palm down |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: turn forearm palm up |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move arm in a circle around the shoulder |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move sole of foot inward at ankle |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move sole of foot outward at ankle |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move head at central axis |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move body part forward parallel to the ground |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: move body part backward parallel to the ground |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: raise body part |
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Definition
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Term
ID Skeletal muscle movement: lower body part |
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Definition
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Term
What are some MS developmental considerations for the aging adult? |
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Definition
decrease in height, kyphosis, ROM is same unless disease is present |
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Term
What is the order of examination for MS? |
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Definition
inspection, palpation, ROM, Muscle testing |
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Term
Always compare ____ sides |
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Definition
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Term
When comparing limbs bilaterally a discrepancy of ____ is abnormal |
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Definition
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Term
Define isometric muscle contraction |
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Definition
without inducing movement |
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Term
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Definition
partial dislodgement of the bone from joint cavity |
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Term
ID muscle strength grade: complete ROM against full resistance |
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Definition
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Term
ID muscle strength grade: Complete ROM against moderate resistance |
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Definition
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Term
ID muscle strength grade: Complete ROM without resistance |
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Definition
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Term
ID muscle strength grade: Complete ROM only if joint fully supported |
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Definition
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Term
ID muscle strength grade: Muscle contraction visible but insufficient to move joint |
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Definition
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Term
ID muscle strength grade: no visible or palpable muscle contraction |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the phalen's test |
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Definition
ask person to hold both hands behind back while flexing wrists 90 deg.; should have no symptoms after 60 sec.; if so, carpel tunnel |
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Term
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Definition
direct percussion of median nerve at wrist; should have no symptoms; if so, carpel tunnel |
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Term
What is the bulge sign in the knee indicative of? |
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Definition
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Term
What is ballottement of the patella indicative of? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
test for meniscal tears; pt is supine flex knee and hip, rotate leg in and out, externally rotate leg and push inward stress on knee; slowly extend knee; should be smooth, no pain |
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Term
ID function of the brain lobe: frontal |
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Definition
behavior, personality emotion, intellectual function |
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Term
ID function of the brain lobe: Borca's area |
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Definition
in frontal lobe, motor speech (functional loss = expressive aphasia |
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Term
ID function of the brain lobe: Parietal |
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Definition
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Term
ID function of the brain lobe: wernicke's area |
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Definition
temporal, language comprehension (functional loss= receptive aphasia) |
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Term
ADH, osmoreceptors and thermal receptors are located where? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the purpose of the spinothalamic tract? |
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Definition
sensory pathway of pain, temp and light touch |
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Term
What is the purpose of the posterior colums? |
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Definition
sensory pathway of position (proprioception), vibration and finely localized touch (stereognosis) |
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Term
What is the result of upper motor neuron dysfunction? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the result of lower motor neuron dysfunction? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What are the 4 components of the reflex arc? |
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Definition
DTR, superficial (corneal, abdominal), visceral, pathologic |
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Term
Name the 12 cranial nerves in order |
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Definition
Olfactory, Optic. Occulomotor, Trochlear, Trigeminal, abducens, facial, acoustic, glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal, hypoglossal |
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Term
What is the mnemoinc for cranial types? |
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Definition
Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Bad Business Marries Money |
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Term
What are the developmental considerations for the aging adult regarding the nervous system? |
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Definition
general atrohpy with steady loss of neurons (decreased DTRs, loss of vibratory sense; decreased cerebral blood flow (loss of balance, dizziness, forgetfulness) |
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Term
Describe the glasgow coma scale |
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Definition
level of consciousness; 15 fully alert, 7 or less= coma |
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Term
Describe decerebrate rigidity |
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Definition
upper extremities stiffly extended, adducted, internal rotation, plantar flexion, teeth clenched, hyperextended back; lesion in brain stem |
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Term
Describe decorticate rigidity |
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Definition
flexion of arm, wrist and fingers, adduction of arm , plantar reflexion; hemispheric lesion of cerebral cortex |
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Term
What 3 cranial nerves are concerned with eye movement and pupil constriction? |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the function of CN 5 |
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Definition
motor: masseter muscles; sensory: light touch; corneal reflex (often ommitted) |
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Term
Describe the functions of CN7 |
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Definition
motor: facial mobility (expressions); sensory: taste |
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Term
What is the purpose of CN8? |
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Definition
hearing acuity (whisper test, weber, rinne) |
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Term
What is the function of CNs 9 and 10? |
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Definition
motor: tongue movement (depress tongue and say "ahh"), gag reflex; sensory: taste on posterior tongue |
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Term
How do you test the function of CN11? |
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Definition
shrug shoulders, turn head against resistance |
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Term
How do you test the function of CN12? |
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Definition
stick out tongue (no wasting or tremors) say light, tight, dynamite (articulation) |
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Term
Balance tests and coordination movements test the function of what part of the brain? |
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Definition
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Term
What part of the sensory system helps differentiate between sharp and dull pain? |
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Definition
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Term
tactile discrimination includes what 5 tests? |
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Definition
stereognosis, graphesthesia, two point discrimination, extinction, point location |
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Term
The tactile discrimination function is part of what sensory system? |
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Definition
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Term
Describe how to test the following DTR: biceps |
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Definition
strike thumb while it touches the biceps tendon |
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Term
Describe how to test the following DTR: tricpes |
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Definition
hold upper arm at side and strike elbow |
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Term
Describe how to test the following DTR: brachioradialis |
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Definition
strike forearm area near wrist |
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Term
Describe how to test the following DTR: achilles |
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Definition
hold foot in dorsiflexion and strike tendon |
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Term
Describe how to test the following DTR: clonus |
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Definition
briskly dorsiflex after relaxing the muscle and observe for rapid contractions |
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Term
Too much ___ can cause muscle reflexes to go away |
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Definition
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Term
Describe a positive babinski reflex |
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Definition
toes fan out when upside down J is written on the foot; pathologic |
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Term
Define meningeal irritation |
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Definition
possible meningitis of dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater; positive meningeal signs |
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Term
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Definition
MiniMental State Exam to detect delirium and dementia; orientation, registration (repeat 3 words immediately), attention and calculation, recall (3 words from before), language; max of 30 |
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Term
What is normal GU appearance and function for female newborn? |
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Definition
adhesions, labia/clitoris engorged; urination within 24 hrs |
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Term
What is a normal GU appearance and function for male newborns? |
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Definition
testes palpable, edematous scrotum with rugae, no penile retraction for 3 months; urination within 24 hrs |
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Term
How many voidings does an infant usually have per day and what should it look like? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the prognosis for hydrocele in an infant? |
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Definition
It will resolve on its own |
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Term
What is the first sign of puberty in a female? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the first sign of puberty is males? |
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Definition
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Term
When does an infant have voluntary control of swallowing? |
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Definition
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Term
Is it normal for infants to have visual peristalsis? |
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Definition
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Term
How do you fix distension from gas in an infant? |
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Definition
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Term
When does the digestive process complete for infants? |
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Definition
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Term
What are the daily fluid intake requirements for infants? |
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Definition
1-10kg= 100ml/kg/day 11-20= 50ml/kg/day >20kg=20ml/kg/day |
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Term
Describe the stool appearance: meconium |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the stool appearance: transitional stools |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the stool appearance: breast milk |
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Definition
yellow-golden; odor of sour milk (dijon and cottage cheese consistency) |
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Term
Describe the stool appearance: Formula |
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Definition
pale yellow-light brown; stinkier |
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Term
Describe the stool appearance: solid food |
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Definition
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Term
Infants appear pot bellied until what age? |
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Definition
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Term
What are 3 common abdominal findings in children? |
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Definition
umbilical hernia, diastasis recti (seperation of rectus muscles), linea nigra (benign) |
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Term
Where does active bone growth take place? |
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Definition
epiphyseal plate; weakest point in children |
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Term
Describe the simian crease |
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Definition
one line across the palm when there should be two |
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Term
When is myelination of the spinal cord nearly complete in a child? |
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Definition
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Term
Genu varum is comon up to ___ yrs |
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Definition
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Term
Genu valgum is aka what and is common up to what year? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the medical term for bowleggedness and when does it resolve? |
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Definition
metatarsus adductus; 3 yrs |
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Term
What is a normal infant gait appearance? |
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Definition
broad based with arms out for balance |
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Term
ID age range: gait: base narrows with arms closer to sides |
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Definition
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Term
What age group is likely to have subluxation of the elbow from swinging them around too much? |
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Definition
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Term
When does each age experience its prepubescent growth spurt? |
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Definition
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Term
flat footedness and pigeon toe is normal until what age? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the name of the assessment used during a scoliosis exam? |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the closure of cranial sutures |
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Definition
posterior: 6-8 weeks anterior: 9-24 months |
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Term
Describe brain growth in early childhood |
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Definition
By year 1 brain is 2.5 times birth weight By 5-6yrs brain has tripled in size Brain is 12% body weight at birth and 2% by adulthood |
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Term
When are sensation assessments begun in children? |
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Definition
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Term
How do you check CN12 in an infant? |
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Definition
pinch their nose and the mouth will open to see tongue |
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Term
Describe rooting reflex in infants |
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Definition
when cheek is brushed, infant will turn toward that side and open its mouth |
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Term
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Definition
when infant is prone it will raise its head and arch back; "swan dive" |
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Term
Describe the plantar grasp in infants |
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Definition
when thumb touches ball of infant's foot, toes grasp thumb |
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Term
Describe the asymmetric tonic neck relfex of infants |
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Definition
supine, turn head to side with ipsilateral extension of arm/leg; "fencing" |
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Term
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Definition
symmetric abduction, extension of extremities in response to movement or loud noise |
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Term
Describe thee parachute reflex |
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Definition
horizontal prone position, hands/fingers extend to protect from falling |
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Term
Describe the placing reflex |
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Definition
when infant help upright near a table feels the bottom with its foot and steps onto it |
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Term
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Definition
when infant help upright and feet placed on table they alternately "step" |
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Term
What is the most common permanent neurologic disability of childhood? |
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Definition
cerebral palsy; spasticity is early signs with cognitive and language deficits |
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Term
What are 3 behavioral warning signs of CP? |
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Definition
Extreme irritability, no smile by 3 months, feeding difficulties |
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Term
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Definition
from crawling position child uses hands to climb up legs and stand |
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Term
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Definition
bones density one standard deviation below that of a 30 yo white woman |
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Term
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Definition
bone density 2.5 standard deviations or more below an avg 30 yo white woman |
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Term
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Definition
common fracture site of distal radius, proximal femur, and thoracic and lumbar vertebrae in osteoporsis |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What happens when Ca is low in the body? |
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Definition
PTH is realeased by parathyroid gland; kidneys activate viatmain D |
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Term
In age, bone ____ exceeds bone _____ |
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Definition
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Term
What meds causes bone loss when used for more than 6 months? |
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Definition
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Term
Why is osteoporosis 8x's more common in women than men? |
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Definition
lower Ca intake, less bones mass and pregnancy/breastfeeding deplete skeletal reserve of Ca |
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Term
What are the clinical manifestations of osteoporosis? |
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Definition
dowager's hump (kyphosis), excessive height loss, atrophy and hip fractures |
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Term
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Definition
bone density measuring machine; most accurate to determine osteoporosis diagnosis |
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Term
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Definition
soft bones, inadequate mineralization, low absorption of Ca from intestines |
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Term
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Definition
pyrogenic infection of bone, bone marrow and surrounding tissue; can but acute (4-6 wks) or chronic (more than 4 wks) |
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Term
What are some predisposing factors for osteomyelitis? |
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Definition
diabetes, sickel cell,dental abscess, under 12 and over 50 |
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Term
Where is osteomyelitis most seen? |
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Definition
metaphyseal area of long bones |
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Term
Describe indirect entry in bone disease |
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Definition
from blood to bone to distal femur, proximal tibia, humerus and radius |
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Term
Describe direct entry in bone disease |
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Definition
open wound that may also occur in presence of foreign body; microorgs grow causing increased pressure, necrosis and sequesrum forms |
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Term
Describe sequestreum and involucum in osteomyelitis |
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Definition
sequestreum is where bone dies (infected island in bone); involcum is newe bone that seals dead bone forming a hole |
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Term
What are the 6 Ps of neurovascular assessment? |
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Definition
parasthesia, pain, piokilothermia, pallor, paralysis, pulselessness |
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Term
What are the CMS of distal neurovascular status? |
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Definition
Circulationi, Movement, Sensation |
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Term
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Definition
rheumatoid arthritis; chronic systemic deforming inflammation of the synovial joints |
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Term
What type of inflammatory response is RA? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
inflammation spreads causing coag products to be deposited in synovial membrane; fibrin develops into granulation tissue "pannus" (classic finding); inhibits joint tissue regeneration |
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Term
What are the commonly affected joints of RA? |
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Definition
fingers, feet wrists elbows knees |
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Term
Describe the clinical manifestations of RA |
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Definition
stiffness in the morning (1hr), loss of mobility, swan neck, boutonniere and ulnar deviation deformities |
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Term
Describe raynaud's phenomenon |
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Definition
reversible ischemia of peripheral arterioles in response to cold or stress with intense vasospasm pallor and cyanosis |
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Term
Describe the diagnostic criteria for RA |
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Definition
4-7 must be presnt; morning stiffness (over 1 hr for 6 wks), arthritis of 3 or more joints, symmetric arthritis, rhematoid nodules, serum rheumatoid factor |
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Term
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Definition
slow progressive non-inflammatory disease of synovial especially weight bearing joints; degeneration of articular cartilage |
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Term
Who is at risk for DJD/OA? |
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Definition
athletes and obese (wear and tear on joints) |
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Term
Describe the clinical manifestations of DJD/OA |
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Definition
pain in joint with ambulation, stiffness after rest, crepitus (grating), herberden's nodes and bouchard's nodes; increased symptoms at end of day |
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Term
Describe herberden's nodes |
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Definition
bony overgrowths at distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints |
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Term
Describe bouchard's nodes |
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Definition
bony overgrowth at proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints |
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Term
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Definition
abnormal amounts of urates in the body from overproduction (secondary) or underexcretion of uric acid (primary) |
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Term
What is the patho of gout linked to? |
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Definition
purine metabolism and kidney function; uric acid is breakdown product of first |
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Term
Where is the most common place for gout to occur? |
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Definition
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Term
What causes gouty arthritis? |
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Definition
crystallizatino of uric acid in synovial fluid |
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Term
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Definition
small white nodules visible through the skin caused by crystal deposition over time |
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Term
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Definition
asymptomatic hyperuricemia; elevated serum uric acid but no manifestations |
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Term
ID gout stage: great toe is vulnerable; triggered by trauma drugs or alcohol; severe pain in effected joints noticed at night |
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Definition
Acute gouty arthritis; stage 2 |
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Term
ID gout type: deposit of urate crystals surrounded by granuloma of macrophages that have developed into epithelial cells; cause painless swellings of ear helix, finger hands knees feet |
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Definition
tophaceous gout; 3; lesions of chronicity |
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Term
What grade of fever is associated with gout? |
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Definition
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Term
What is considered an elecated serum uric acid? |
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Definition
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