Term
Under what exceptions can a hazardous container be left open?
A. When it is overfilled. B. Only when adding or removing waste. C. At the end of the duty day. D. At the begining of the duty day. |
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Definition
Only when adding or removing waste. |
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Term
Where can you get a copy of the Materials Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) if yours is missing?
a. Base Supply. b. Base Fire Department. c. Bioenvironmental Engineering. d. Civil Engineering Environmental Flight. |
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Definition
Civil Engineering Environmental Flight. |
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Term
Keeping a complete file of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for each hazardous chemical and mixture used in the workplace
a. can effectively reduce waste. b. can be very time consuming. c. can help in determining which product to use. d. will increase your chances on a high inspection rating. |
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Definition
can effectively reduce waste. |
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Term
What basic duty do vehicle maintenance shops have for hazardous waste management?
a. Dispose of hazardous wastes. b. Collect, identify, and document wastes produced. c. Improve processes to eliminate generation of hazardous wastes. d. Develop a management system to implement environmental regulations. |
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Definition
Collect, identify, and document wastes produced. |
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Term
Who must determine whether a solid waste is hazardous, as defined in the regulations?
a. The person who generated it. b. The state agency charged to conduct tests. c. The trash collection agency that picks it up. d. The US Environmental Protection Agency. |
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Definition
The person who generated it. |
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Term
Which hazardous waste will most likely be generated by vehicle maintenance shops?
a. Cyanide. b. Mercury. c. Creosote. d. Degreasing solvent. |
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Definition
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Term
Why should hazardous waste containers be placed on pallets?
a. For easier cleanup. b. To expedite pickup. c. To reduce corrosion. d. For easier collection. |
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Definition
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Term
Which country is the largest user of energy?
a. Japan. b. Mexico. c. Germany. d. United States. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the best thing individuals can do to help reduce air pollution?
a. Perform maintenance on their personal vehicles. b. Use public transportation where practical. c. Drive to work early to avoid traffic jams. d. Use nuclear energy for home heating. |
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Definition
Use public transportation where practical. |
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Term
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 90–821, Hazard Communication, covers all of the following,except
a. sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous material. b. sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous waste. c. provides guidance for informing employees about hazardous materials. d. provides guidance for the Air Force hazard communication program. |
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Definition
sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous waste. |
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Term
Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard (STD) 91–20 contains basic information for operating
a. vehicles. b. specific shop equipment. c. a vehicle on the flight line. d. a vehicle maintenance shop. |
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Definition
a vehicle maintenance shop. |
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Term
When operating a wire wheel that has an eye shield, Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards (STD) require personnel wear
a. safety glasses. b. head covering. c. respiratory protection. d. extended length gloves. |
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Definition
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Term
What does the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard (STD) 91–501, Chapter 18, “Machinery,” require for the use of abrasive wheel machinery in the shop?
a. An operating checklist. b. An inspection of the surrounding area. c. Machine must be painted optic yellow. d. Machine must be securely mounted and grinding wheels guarded. |
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Definition
Machine must be securely mounted and grinding wheels guarded. |
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Term
Which chapter in Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard (STD) 91– 501, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Standards covers vehicle maintenance battery shops?
a. Chapter 14, Personal Protective Equipment. b. Chapter 18, Machinery. c. Chapter 19, Emergency Shower and Eyewash Units. d. Chapter 22, Flammable and Combustible Liquids. |
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Definition
Chapter 19, Emergency Shower and Eyewash Units. |
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Term
As a Vehicle Management (VM) supervisor, your main purpose and responsibility is to
a. ensure mission requirements are met. b. implement approved policy by leading airmen of lower grades. c. establish policies that will enable subordinates to meet mission goals. d. set the example by being the first to report to work and the last to leave. |
|
Definition
implement approved policy by leading airmen of lower grades. |
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Term
As a Vehicle Management (VM) work center supervisor, which are specific responsibilities that you have?
a. Ensuring proper tools are readily available, researching parts, troubleshooting vehicles. b. Assigning work, enforcing safety procedures, filling work orders, and maintaining technical orders. c. Assigning work, coordinating with other sections, scheduling-in maintenance, and monitoring bench stock. d. Ensuring proper tools are readily available, assigning work, enforcing safety procedures, and meeting training needs. |
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Definition
Ensuring proper tools are readily available, assigning work, enforcing safety procedures, and meeting training needs. |
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Term
When planning and assigning work requirements, you as a Vehicle Management (VM) supervisor need to consider the priority of the work to be done,
a. the task that needs to be done, and the workload of the other work centers. b. the task that needs to be done, and available workspace. c. the task that needs to be done, and workers’ abilities. d. workers’ habits, and break schedules. |
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Definition
the task that needs to be done, and workers’ abilities. |
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Term
To whom is the mission essential level (MEL) presented for final approval?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander. b. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander. c. Major command (MAJCOM) commander. d. Wing commander. |
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Definition
Mission Support Group (MSG) commander. |
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Term
As a Vehicle Management (VM) supervisor, you should assign a specific repair to individuals by
a. skill level only. b. priority and workload. c. ability and knowledge. d. reviewing training records. |
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Definition
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Term
How are vehicle components that are authorized depot repair coded in the Federal Supply Catalog?
a. D. b. L. c. S. d. T. |
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Definition
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Term
Which condition must be met before a depot eligible vehicle is approved for depot maintenance?
a. Vehicle is an unsuitable substitute for another. b. Vehicle has reached a condition wherein all systems need rebuilt. c. Required repairs will cost over 75 percent of a new replacement vehicle. d. Required repairs are clearly beyond the base vehicle management capability. |
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Definition
Required repairs are clearly beyond the base vehicle management capability. |
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Term
Who approves or disapproves all requests for depot overhaul?
a. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). b. Warner Robins Air Logistics Center (WR-ALC). c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Wing commander. |
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Definition
Warner Robins Air Logistics Center (WR-ALC). |
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Term
When and to whom is the base 5-year projected depot maintenance requirements submitted?
a. 15 May to Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center (WR-ALC). b. 15 May Major command (MAJCOM). c. 15 July to WR-ALC. d. 15 July to MAJCOM. |
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Definition
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Term
Who specifically authorizes substitutions for vehicles already programmed for depot?
a. Major command (MAJCOM). b. Warner Robins Air Logistics Center (WR-ALC). c. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander. |
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Definition
Warner Robins Air Logistics Center (WR-ALC). |
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Term
How many years are added to the life expectancy of a depot overhauled vehicle?
a. 5. b. 7. c. 10. d. 12. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the warranty period for all depot overhauled vehicles?
a. 12 months, 12,000 miles. b. 15 months, 12,000 miles. c. According to specific contract specifications. d. According to commercial manufacturer warranties. |
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Definition
According to specific contract specifications. |
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Term
Areas that should be considered prior to assigning an individual to perform quality assurance (QA) inspections are
a. skill level, rank, and Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). b. skill level, rank, and experience. c. skill level, broad expertise, and ability to avoid favoritism or bias. d. prior inspection experience, rank, and ability to maintain process integrity. |
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Definition
skill level, broad expertise, and ability to avoid favoritism or bias. |
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Term
Choose the phrase that best describes manpower.
a. The total number of positions assigned to an organization. b. The total number of personnel assigned to an organization. c. The total number of jobs or positions required to accomplish a particular mission. d. The military personnel that fill the positions required to accomplish a particular mission. |
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Definition
The total number of jobs or positions required to accomplish a particular mission. |
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Term
Factors that affect manpower authorizations are called
a. variances. b. standards. c. change factors. d. tenant agreements. |
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Definition
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Term
Which is a negative manpower variance?
a. Missile mobile maintenance support. b. Material control function realigned. c. Number of vehicles assigned. d. Vehicle complexity. |
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Definition
Material control function realigned. |
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Term
The financial obligation to pay for the loss, damage, or destruction of a vehicle resulting from abuse is known as
a. report of survey. b. supply discipline. c. pecuniary liability. d. property accountability. |
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Definition
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Term
How many categories of property are in the supply system?
a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. |
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Definition
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Term
What type of equipment item is required by field units to do their jobs?
a. Organizational. b. Consumable. c. Repairable. d. Individual. |
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Definition
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Term
Items that are needed to outfit an individual stationed in a cold weather area are called
a. supplies. b. properties. c. equipment. d. individual issue. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the code used to identify repairable cycle assets that are primarily under depot level control?
a. ND. b. XD. c. NC. d. XB. |
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Definition
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Term
Consumables are expendable, non-repairable items that have the identifying indicator
a. ND. b. XF. c. NC. d. XB. |
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Definition
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Term
Which publication is used as a starting reference for justifying tools and equipment?
a. Allowance Source Code 403. b. Allowance Source Code 457. c. TO 36–1–50, Motor Vehicle Maintenance Guide. d. TO 36–1–191, Technical and Managerial Reference for Motor Vehicle Maintenance. |
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Definition
TO 36–1–50, Motor Vehicle Maintenance Guide. |
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Term
Which publication is used to identify “shop-specific” equipment by type and quantity?
a. Allowance Source Code (ASC) 403. b. ASC 457. c. Technical Order (TO) 36–1–50, Motor Vehicle Maintenance Guide. d. TO 36–1–191, Technical and Managerial Reference for Motor Vehicle Maintenance. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the benefit to you, your shop, and/or the Air Force from the Vendor Product Evaluation Program?
a. Your organization is able to keep the products when the test period is over. b. Industry develops products that are cost effective, high quality, easy to use, and safe. c. The Air Force gets the products free as promotional items from vendors, and you stay current on the latest industry standards. d. You are permitted to work on test programs that allow you to experiment on new products using your mechanical expertise, further expanding your job knowledge. |
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Definition
Industry develops products that are cost effective, high quality, easy to use, and safe. |
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Term
What role does the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) play in the war planning process?
a. Provide necessary forces to accomplish the in-theatre mission. b. Generate and staff deployment work centers. c. Inspect all deploying vehicles. d. Review the WMP III. |
|
Definition
Provide necessary forces to accomplish the in-theatre mission. |
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Term
Who is responsible for developing the concept of operations (CONOP) upon receipt of tasking to support a national security objective and military objectives?
a. Supported commander. b. Support commander. c. Joint Chiefs of Staff. d. Unified command. |
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Definition
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Term
What are directed at the Air Force-level, built at the major command (MAJCOM) level, and filled at the squadron level?
a. Operation plans (OPLAN). b. Unit type code (UTC). c. Concept of operations (CONOPS). d. Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD). |
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Definition
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Term
Who determines the make up of a unit type code (UTC) in rank, skill-level, Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC), and numbers?
a. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO). b. Tasked commander. c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. HQ Air Force. |
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Definition
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Term
The mission capability (MISCAP) statement associated with a unit type code (UTC) contains
a. type and amount of work to be performed. b. skills required to complete the mission. c. unique training requirements. d. mandatory equipment items. |
|
Definition
type and amount of work to be performed. |
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Term
The three main principles of the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) structure and execution are
a. fairness, teaming, and predictability. b. equitability, training, and scheduling. c. fairness, transparency, and proportionality. d. equitability, transparency, and predictability. |
|
Definition
equitability, transparency, and predictability. |
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Term
Two key concepts of the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) are
a. teaming and light, lean, lethal. b. light, lean, lethal and training. c. joint operations and flexibility. d. teaming and warrior ethos. |
|
Definition
teaming and light, lean, lethal. |
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Term
How many bands make up the Global Air Expeditionary Force (AEF)?
a. 4. b. 5. c. 6. d. 8. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the difference in information reported by the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART) and Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
a. There is no difference. b. ART reports readiness of an individual and SORTS reports unit readiness. c. ART reports readiness of a unit type code (UTC) and SORTS reports unit readiness. d. SORTS reports readiness of a UTC and ART reports unit readiness. |
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Definition
ART reports readiness of a unit type code (UTC) and SORTS reports unit readiness. |
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Term
What method of assessment does the Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART) use to measure readiness?
a. Stoplight. b. Go, no-go. c. C–1 through C–6. d. Ready, partially ready, not ready. |
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Definition
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Term
What is a declaration of the mission for which a unit has been equipped, organized,designed, and tasked?
a. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement. b. Status of resources and training system (SORTS). c. Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD). d. Mission capability (MISCAP) statement. |
|
Definition
Designed operational capability (DOC) statement. |
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Term
How many levels of unit combat readiness are there for Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS) reporting?
a. 3. b. 4. c. 5. d. 6. |
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Definition
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Term
How often is the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS) report submitted?
a. Weekly. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Annually. |
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Definition
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Term
The overall combat readiness rating in the Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS) is determined by the
a. supervisor. b. unit commander. c. major command. d. HQ USAF. |
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Definition
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Term
Who provides logistics support to facilitate deployment operations?
a. Work center supervisor. b. Unit deployment monitor (UDM). c. Installation deployment officer (IDO). d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander. |
|
Definition
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander. |
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Term
Who is responsible for ensuring their people are properly trained and evaluated, and records are maintained?
a. Work center supervisor. b. Unit deployment monitor (UDM). c. Installation deployment officer (IDO). d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander. |
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Definition
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Term
Which deployment work center is the focal point for deployment operations?
a. Deployment Control Center (DCC). b. Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). c. Personnel Deployment Function (PDF). d. Unit Deployment Control Center (UDCC). |
|
Definition
Deployment Control Center (DCC). |
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Term
Which deployment work center provides services such as issuing “dog tags”?
a. Deployment Control Center (DCC). b. Cargo Deployment Function (CDF). c. Personnel Deployment Function (PDF). d. Unit Deployment Control Center (UDCC). |
|
Definition
Personnel Deployment Function (PDF). |
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Term
Perform preventive maintenance and inspection and special inspections on vehicles prior to deployment
a. every time. b. if due within 30 days. c. if due within 60 days. d. if due within 90 days. |
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Definition
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Term
Who inspects and approves each vehicle and documentation package prior to shipment, ensuring suitability and compliance?
a. Vehicle Management (VM) superintendent. b. Vehicle Management & Analysis (VM&A). c. Customer Service Center (CSC). d. Shop supervisor. |
|
Definition
Vehicle Management (VM) superintendent. |
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Term
Which parts support kit provides lateral support to multiple bases?
a. Contingency high priority mission support kit (CHPMSK). b. Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP). c. Temporary mission support kit (TMSK). d. Base level parts support kit (BLPSK). |
|
Definition
Contingency high priority mission support kit (CHPMSK). |
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Term
Which parts support kit is designed and pre-assembled based on wartime taskings developed during war planning?
a. Contingency high priority mission support kit (CHPMSK). b. Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP). c. Temporary mission support kit (TMSK). d. Base level parts support kit (BLPSK). |
|
Definition
Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP). |
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Term
You can find vehicle specific parts listings on the Vehicle Management (VM) Community of Practice (CoP) for which parts kit?
a. Contingency high priority mission support kit (CHPMSK). b. Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP). c. Temporary mission support kit (TMSK). d. Base level parts support kit (BLPSK). |
|
Definition
Temporary mission support kit (TMSK). |
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Term
Temporary mission support kits (TMSK) are designed to vehicles operating in adverse condition for
a. 30 days. b. 60 days. c. 90 days. d. Indefinitely. |
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Definition
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Term
When planning deployed facilities, how much of the vehicle fleet must fit into shop work areas?
a. 5 percent. b. 8 percent. c. 10 percent. d. Only the largest vehicle in the fleet. |
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Definition
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Term
On-scene repair is the goal of
a. minor maintenance. b. triage maintenance. c. organizational maintenance. d. expanded mobile maintenance. |
|
Definition
expanded mobile maintenance. |
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Term
The process of assessing damage, putting the priority vehicles first, and doing cannibalization or whatever it takes to get those vehicles back in commission is called
a. expanded mobile maintenance. b. organizational maintenance. c. intermediate maintenance. d. triage maintenance. |
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Definition
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Term
Which priority level is used for sortie sustaining vehicles and equipment?
a. Priority I. b. Priority II. c. Priority A. d. Priority B. |
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Definition
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Term
Which is not an advantage of a compressed natural gas (CNG) vehicle?
a. Conversion cost. b. Reduced emissions. c. Higher octane ratings. d. No need for fuel enrichment. |
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Definition
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Term
What valve should be closed before testing or servicing the compressed natural gas (CNG) system?
a. Manual shutoff. b. Fuel lock off. c. Regulator. d. Vent. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the timing adaptation system used for on a compressed natural gas (CNG) vehicle?
a. Controls engine timing. b. Adjust the fuel pressure. c. Sequences when fuel is injected. d. Monitors the regenerative braking systems rotor revolutions. |
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Definition
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Term
The feedback system on a compressed natural gas (CNG) vehicle is used to
a. monitor vehicle charging. b. monitor regenerative braking. c. maximize engine performance. d. maintain constant fuel pressure. |
|
Definition
maximize engine performance. |
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Term
What is meant by a regenerative brake system on an electric vehicle?
a. Utilizes remanufactured brake components. b. Energy produced during braking recharges the batteries. c. Energy produced under normal driving conditions recharge the batteries. d. Energy used during braking powers the computer aided anti-lock system. |
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Definition
Energy produced during braking recharges the batteries. |
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Term
The least amount of power or propulsion systems a hybrid vehicle utilizes are
a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8. |
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Definition
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Term
Diesel hybrids are not commonly used in the United States because
a. they cost too much. b. of bad fuel economy. c. of particulate matter and low speeds. d. of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides in the exhaust, and higher noise and vibration. |
|
Definition
of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides in the exhaust, and higher noise and vibration. |
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Term
When is regenerative breaking most efficient on a hybrid vehicle?
a. At idle. b. At low speed. c. At higher speeds. d. While slowing down. |
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Definition
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Term
On which theory are fuel cells based?
a. Reverse electrolysis. b. Regenerative. c. Osmosis. d. Bipolar. |
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Definition
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Term
What is not an advantage of fuel cells over battery-powered vehicles?
a. Cost. b. Efficiency. c. Last longer. d. Zero emissions. |
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Definition
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Term
In an air bag system, how is the inflator assembly electrically connected between the safing sensor and crash sensors?
a. In series. b. In parallel. c. In series-parallel. d. By copper connection. |
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Definition
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Term
What component in the air bag system provides an electrical ground that allows current to flow through the inflator?
a. Mounting plate. b. Safing sensor. c. Crash sensor. d. Ignitor. |
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Definition
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Term
Where are crash sensors usually located on most vehicles?
a. Inside the trunk. b. Rear of the vehicle on the frame. c. Inside the passenger compartment. d. Front of the vehicle near the grille. |
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Definition
Front of the vehicle near the grille. |
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Term
Which location is not a common location of the safing sensor?
a. Inside the trunk. b. On the cowl panel. c. Inside the passenger compartment. d. Inside the electronic control module. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the correct position to place a live inflator assembly on a workbench?
a. Trim cover facing away from the surface of the bench. b. Trim cover facing toward the surface of the bench. c. Igniter sitting horizontal. d. Igniter sitting vertical. |
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Definition
Trim cover facing away from the surface of the bench. |
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Term
What will cause deployment of an air bag?
a. One closed crash sensor. b. One closed safing sensor. c. One closed safing sensor and one closed crash sensor. d. Two closed crash sensors and one closed safing sensor. |
|
Definition
One closed safing sensor and one closed crash sensor. |
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Term
What high-mobility multipurpose wheeled vehicle (HMMWV) suspension system component dampens suspension movement and limits amount of suspension travel?
a. Ball joints. b. Coil springs. c. Shock absorbers. d. Upper control arm. |
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Definition
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Term
At what angle is the radiator mounted in a high-mobility multipurpose wheeled vehicle (HMMWV)?
a. 35 degrees. b. 40 degrees. c. 45 degrees. d. 50 degrees. |
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Definition
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Term
What gauge wire does most M-series automotive circuits use?
a. 14 gauge. b. 18 gauge. c. 20 gauge. d. 22 gauge. |
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Definition
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Term
When you can see four blackout marker lights of the vehicle front during a night time convoy, it means you are too
a. far right of the vehicle. b. left of the vehicle. c. close to the vehicle. d. far away from the vehicle. |
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Definition
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Term
Which simplified test equipment for internal combustion engines (STE/ICE) connectors is used to connect the vehicle test meter (VTM) to a vehicle diagnostic connector?
a. J1. b. J2. c. J3. d. J4. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the primary purpose of the M-series 2½-ton truck?
a. Tactical operations. b. Recovery operations. c. Ford through 30 inches of water. d. Transport troops or heavy loads up to 5,000 pounds. |
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Definition
Transport troops or heavy loads up to 5,000 pounds. |
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Term
How many forward and reverse gears are available when using the transmission in conjunction with the transfer case on the 2½-ton M-series?
a. Eight forward and one reverse. b. Eight forward and two reverse. c. Six forward and one reverse. d. Six forward and two reverse. |
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Definition
Eight forward and two reverse. |
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Term
What major component of the 5-ton M-series medium wrecker is used to control the operating gear ratio of the rear winch drive motor?
a. Control linkage. b. Torque control valve. c. Torque control lever. d. Directional control valve. |
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Definition
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Term
What voltage(s) can the electrical system of the MaxxPro CAT I mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle provide?
a. 12, 24 and 110V. b. 24 and 110V. c. 12 and 24V. d. 24V only. |
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Definition
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Term
What condition does the life support system in the MaxxPro CAT I mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle create in the cab?
a. Safe. b. Sterile. c. Sealed. d. Pressurized. |
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Definition
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Term
Which areas protected by the fire suppression system on the MaxxPro CAT I mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle operate automatically?
a. Tires only. b. Fuel tank and tires. c. Engine and interior. d. Interior, engine, fuel tank and tires. |
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Definition
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Term
Which area(s) protected by the fire suppression system on the MaxxPro CAT I mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle operate manually?
a. Tires only. b. Fuel tank and tires. c. Engine and interior. d. Interior, engine, fuel tank and tires. |
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Definition
Interior, engine, fuel tank and tires. |
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Term
On the MaxxPro CAT I mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle, which armor component attaches externally to the base armor?
a. Base cab. b. Spall liners. c. Catcher plates. d. Effector assemblies. |
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Definition
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Term
On the MaxxPro CAT I mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle, what assists the operator in opening and closing the forward doors?
a. Air. b. Springs. c. Hydraulics. d. There is no assist. |
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Definition
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Term
Which MaxxPro CAT I mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle winch accessory increases the self-recovery winch’s pulling power?
a. Clevis. b. Cable drum. c. Snatch block. d. Choker chain. |
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Definition
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Term
The conventional and blackout lighting systems on the Cougar 6×6 CAT II mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle are controlled by
a. a rotary switch. b. toggle switches. c. a three lever m-series headlight switch. d. a push button m-series headlight switch. |
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Definition
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Term
At what pressure does the Nuclear Biological Chemical (NBC) system in the Cougar CAT II mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle pressure alarm/light shut off?
a. 26 inches of water column (WC). b. 3 inches of WC. c. 3 pounds per square inch (psi). d. 1 psi. |
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Definition
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Term
The tint on the interior of the glass on the Cougar 6×6 CAT II mine resistant ambush protected (MRAP) vehicle reduces interior temperatures
a. 20%. b. 30%. c. 40%. d. 50%. |
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Definition
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