Term
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what is the first thing you
should do?
a. Brief your shift and check for safety gear.
b. Clean the facility and notify the contractors of any discrepancies.
c. Assign personnel to work crews and ensure they know their responsibilities in performing the
mission.
d. Check aircraft and/or truck schedules (if applicable) and review the mission remarks to see what
the day’s requirements are. |
|
Definition
Check aircraft and/or truck schedules (if applicable) and review the mission remarks to see what
the day’s requirements are. |
|
|
Term
When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you
discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the
mission?
a. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
b. Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.
c. Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule.
d. Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in. |
|
Definition
| Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command. |
|
|
Term
Before you can prioritize work assignments, you must review what and why?
a. The shift logs to determine who is available to perform duties.
b. The shift schedule to determine who is available to perform duties.
c. The shift logs to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive.
d. The shift schedule to determine when the aircraft and trucks will arrive. |
|
Definition
| The shift schedule to determine who is available to perform duties. |
|
|
Term
When assigning personnel to work crews, which of the following is not a consideration?
a. Knowing your people and the work center’s current and future needs.
b. Communicating your expectations to the work crews.
c. Assigning them to the same duties every day.
d. Considering their safety and security. |
|
Definition
| Assigning them to the same duties every day. |
|
|
Term
Once you have assigned people to various work crews, you must ensure that they
a. do not take too much time on any one task.
b. report to you every 30 minutes on their progress.
c. know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect from each member.
d. keep a running log of their activities so they can report back to you every detail. |
|
Definition
| Know exactly who is filling which role and what you expect from each member. |
|
|
Term
Within how many days must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station
Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
a. 10.
b. 20.
c. 30.
d. 45. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It is important for you and your subordinates to accurately complete the workload documents
for your work center, such as the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload,
because
a. they are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling
Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.
b. the work center superintendent reviews them daily and asks questions about the missions, which
has a direct impact on your performance report.
c. capturing aircraft delays is critical to streamlining work center processes, which has a direct
impact on which type of shift you work.
d. they are inspected during unit compliance and operational readiness inspections, which has a
direct impact on your pass or failure. |
|
Definition
They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling
Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels. |
|
|
Term
Workload data entries on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station
Traffic Handling Report, are broken up into categories of traffic, which are
a. Transportation Working Capital Funds (TWCF) and non-TWCF.
b. special assignment airlift missions (SAAM) and air refueling missions.
c. space available (S/A) missions and space required (S/R) missions.
d. passengers, cargo, and mail. |
|
Definition
| Transportation Working Capital Funds (TWCF) and non-TWCF. |
|
|
Term
You have had several aircraft in the month of July that are classified as “other” on the Air
Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report. How do you
report those aircraft?
a. Report the number in the block provided only.
b. Prepare a memo for record with each type of aircraft listed.
c. Provide a complete listing of those aircraft in section VIII, Authentications.
d. Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in section XII. |
|
Definition
| Identify the aircraft by type and provide a complete listing of those aircraft in section XII. |
|
|
Term
Which type of manpower authorizations do you use for preparing the work center data on
the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, and from
which document do you take that data?
a. Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
b. Unfunded; UMD.
c. Funded; Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
d. Unfunded; UPMR. |
|
Definition
| Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD). |
|
|
Term
When completing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic
Handling Report, 24 hours of overtime equals how many man-days?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It takes your work center personnel over 30 minutes to drive to the C–130 parking area for
each K-loader load. Which section would you enter this information on the Air Mobility
Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
a. Section XII, Remarks.
b. Section III, General Information.
c. Section IV, Aircraft Handled by Type.
d. You would not enter this information on the report. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You discovered that you made a mistake on the original copy of the Air Mobility Command
(AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report. How do you submit a correction?
a. Report the numbers on the next month’s submission and annotate “corrected copy” in the
remarks.
b. Prepare a corrected AMC Form 82, completing the entire form and annotate “corrected copy”
on the top of the form.
c. Prepare a memorandum for record with each correction listed by section and annotate
“corrected copy” on the top of the form.
d. Prepare a corrected AMC Form 82, completing only the sections needing correction and
annotate “corrected copy” on the top of the form. |
|
Definition
Prepare a corrected AMC Form 82, completing only the sections needing correction and
annotate “corrected copy” on the top of the form. |
|
|
Term
If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period,
after direction from Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC), the unit will
a. conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing IG office
for consolidation.
b. conduct a self-inspection on all programs and return the results through the numbered Air
Force (NAF).
c. Notify the MAJCOM Commander of the oversight and reschedule the inspection for a later
date.
d. Notify the Wing commander of the oversight and request an inspection through the MAJCOM. |
|
Definition
Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing IG office
for consolidation. |
|
|
Term
How often will you accomplish self-inspection checklists if assigned to an active duty and
an Air National Guard (ANG) unit, respectively?
a. Every quarter/annually.
b. Every six months/annually.
c. Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
d. Every six months, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned. |
|
Definition
| Every six months/annually. |
|
|
Term
When creating an Air Force Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record, for a trainee, which of
the following documents should you not include?
a. AF Form 797.
b. AF Form 2096.
c. AF Form 1800.
d. AETC Form 156. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When creating a Master Task Listing (MTL) for your work center, you must identify all
tasks required within your work center including contingency/wartime
a. and core tasks only.
b. tasks and additional tasks required by the AF Career Field Manager (AFCFM) only.
c. tasks, additional duties, and tasks identified by the supervisors in your work center and
AFCFM only.
d. tasks, additional tasks identified by the supervisors in your work center, and mandatory core
tasks required by the AFCFM only. |
|
Definition
Tasks, additional tasks identified by the supervisors in your work center, and mandatory core
tasks required by the AFCFM only. |
|
|
Term
If you are authorized to sign off tasks in the Specialty Training Standard (STS) for a trainee,
your name and initials must be listed on the
a. identification block of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
b. identification block of the trainee’s personnel information file (PIF).
c. trainer/certifier letter filed with the Unit Training Manager (UTM).
d. identification page of the Master Training File (MTF). |
|
Definition
| Identification block of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). |
|
|
Term
When an Airman transfers to your work center from another base or work center, you
should erase
a. initials and dates of previously certified tasks only.
b. all circles that do not apply to the current duty position only.
c. dates of previously certified tasks and AF Form 623a entries only.
d. all circles that do not apply to the current duty position and initials of previously certified tasks
only. |
|
Definition
| All circles that do not apply to the current duty position only. |
|
|
Term
If a trainee receives training in technical school on turning in cash collections to the “b”
proficiency code level, what should he or she know or be able to do?
a. Show or tell others how to turn in cash collections.
b. Determine step-by-step procedures for turning in cash collections.
c. Predict, isolate, and resolve problems about turning in cash collections.
d. Identify the relationship of basic facts and state general principles about turning in cash
collections. |
|
Definition
| Determine step-by-step procedures for turning in cash collections. |
|
|
Term
When a trainee takes a career development course (CDC), it is an example of which Air
Force on-the-job training (OJT) component?
a. Job knowledge.
b. Job experience.
c. Job proficiency.
d. Job qualification |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Your trainee has completed upgrade training (UGT) and is gaining more confidence driving
the Tunner loader. This is an example of which Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) component?
a. Job knowledge.
b. Job experience.
c. Job proficiency.
d. Job qualification. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a trainee is assigned to your work center, within how many days will you conduct
and document an initial evaluation for an active duty member?
a. 30 days.
b. 45 days.
c. 60 days.
d. 90 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When your trainee completes all upgrade training (UGT) requirements, which form should
you initiate to upgrade him/her?
a. AETC Form 156, Student Training Report.
b. AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.
c. AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
d. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS) Continuation/Command JQS. |
|
Definition
| AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action. |
|
|
Term
When your unit training manager issues your trainee’s career development course (CDC) to
you and the trainee, which activity must you and the trainee both complete together before you
issue a volume to the trainee?
a. Inventory the course material.
b. Make required pen-and-ink changes.
c. Determine the volume sequence of study.
d. Conduct a comprehensive review of the entire CDC and document it on the AF Form 623a,
On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet. |
|
Definition
| Inventory the course material. |
|
|
Term
Your trainee has just completed the unit review exercises in the second issued volume of the
career development course (CDC) and missed several questions in the lesson on center of balance
calculations. What action must you take?
a. Complete the field scoring sheet, place it in the AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record, and
issue the next CDC volume.
b. Counsel the trainee for missing so many questions on one lesson, prepare a letter of counseling,
and place it in the trainee’s AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.
c. Review the center of balance lesson with the trainee, complete the field scoring sheet and
document the review on the AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.
d. Conduct a comprehensive review of the entire CDC with the trainee, complete the field scoring
sheet and document the review on the AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation
Sheet. |
|
Definition
Review the center of balance lesson with the trainee, complete the field scoring sheet and
document the review on the AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet. |
|
|
Term
Trainers should be chosen based on their
a. rank and shift.
b. time in service and days off.
c. experience and ability to provide instruction to the trainee.
d. time in grade and ability to develop lesson guides and task breakdowns. |
|
Definition
| Experience and ability to provide instruction to the trainee. |
|
|
Term
A work center training rotation should identify “who, what, when, where, why, and how.” It
should also
a. ensure everyone involved knows the answers to these questions.
b. ensure everyone involved works the same schedule.
c. consider only short-term priorities.
d. consider only long-term priorities. |
|
Definition
| Ensure everyone involved knows the answers to these questions. |
|
|
Term
What is the first step in determining the need for training?
a. Develop the training objectives.
b. Develop a work center training rotation.
c. Identify a qualified trainer to ensure mission effectiveness.
d. Identify the tasks your work center is required to accomplish. |
|
Definition
| Identify the tasks your work center is required to accomplish. |
|
|
Term
The difference between the work center duty requirements and what an individual can
perform defines
a. the individual’s training requirements.
b. recurring training requirements.
c. training timelines.
d. training rotations. |
|
Definition
| The individual’s training requirements. |
|
|
Term
When determining an individual’s training needs, which of the following are common
prerequisite task or knowledge requirements and must often be trained before training on other
related tasks?
a. Professional military education requirements.
b. Environmental training requirements.
c. Safety and equipment qualifications.
d. Ancillary training requirements. |
|
Definition
| Safety and equipment qualifications. |
|
|
Term
When preparing an Air Force Form 797, Air Force Job Qualification Standard Continuation,
for your work center, how is the numbering accomplished for the task numbers?
a. Numerically, starting with “1.”
b. Alphabetically, starting with the letter “a.”
c. In the same manner as an Air Force Technical Order (TO) or Career Development Course
(CDC).
d. In the same manner as an Air Force Instruction (AFI) or Career Field Education and Training
Plan (CFETP). |
|
Definition
In the same manner as an Air Force Instruction (AFI) or Career Field Education and Training
Plan (CFETP). |
|
|
Term
When preparing an Air Force Form 797, Air Force Job Qualification Standard Continuation,
for your work center, what information will you enter in the “Tasks, knowledge, and technical
references” column?
a. The task statement and task number.
b. Task statement and technical reference.
c. The task number and technical reference.
d. The knowledge statement and task references |
|
Definition
| Task statement and technical reference. |
|
|
Term
Your trainee is very uncomfortable driving the 10K forklift. Where would be the best place
to conduct more training on the equipment?
a. In the warehouse, during peak delivery hours.
b. On the flight line, during high-operations tempo.
c. In the wide open pallet yard after normal delivery hours.
d. In the very small baggage area behind the passenger terminal. |
|
Definition
| In the wide open pallet yard after normal delivery hours. |
|
|
Term
You are evaluating a trainee on a task and the trainee has forgotten an important step that
could lead to an unsafe situation. What must you do?
a. Do not check that step on the checklist and make a note at the bottom of the form to readdress
training.
b. Stop the evaluation and have the trainee demonstrate the unsafe act to work center personnel.
c. Stop the evaluation and help the trainee understand how the step impacts safety.
d. Let the trainee continue the task, but reevaluate the trainee on the task again |
|
Definition
| Stop the evaluation and help the trainee understand how the step impacts safety. |
|
|
Term
When counseling A1C Tran on his training progress, your primary purpose is to
a. publicly reprimand him in a way that conveys to others that you are in charge.
b. improve performance and professionally develop him to his highest potential.
c. give him favorable comments because you know he is sensitive and well liked.
d. play the role of critic and superior while pointing out what he needs to improve. |
|
Definition
| Improve performance and professionally develop him to his highest potential. |
|
|
Term
Amn Jackson is quiet and insecure. Which feedback/counseling approach would you use to
help him progress with his training?
a. Directive.
b. Combined.
c. Progressive.
d. Nondirective |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the last step when counseling individuals on their training progress?
a. Telling them what you expect.
b. Observing their performance.
c. Documenting the counseling session.
d. Focusing on their behavior and not the individual |
|
Definition
| Documenting the counseling session. |
|
|
Term
When you want to evaluate the effectiveness of your on-the-job (OJT) training program,
you should evaluate the
a. trainers only.
b. trainees only.
c. trainees and trainers only.
d. trainee, trainer, and unit training manager. |
|
Definition
| Trainees and trainers only. |
|
|
Term
Amn Miller just arrived to your unit from technical training. Which area must you evaluate
her on within the first 90 days of assignment?
a. Military bearing only.
b. Military bearing and technical ability.
c. Technical ability and customs and courtesies.
d. Military bearing, technical ability, and customs and courtesies. |
|
Definition
| Military bearing and technical ability. |
|
|
Term
Which is not a way to report the performance deficiency of a formal course graduate?
a. Participate in field interviews conducted by formal course owners.
b. Complete the graduate assessment survey (GAS) or field evaluation questionnaire (FEQ).
c. Note the deficiency in the member’s enlisted performance report and place the graduate in
supervised study.
d. Use the customer service information line listed in the Career Field Education and Training
Plan (CFETP) |
|
Definition
Note the deficiency in the member’s enlisted performance report and place the graduate in
supervised study. |
|
|
Term
One of your trainees might be attending the in-residence Hazardous Materials Inspector
Course (Initial). After you’ve confirmed that the trainee needs the training, to check to see if
he/she meets the course prerequisites; go
a. to the Air Force Portal.
b. and ask the unit training manager (UTM).
c. to the Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA) Web site.
d. to the Educational Advanced Distribution Learning System (EADLS) Web site. |
|
Definition
| To the Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA) Web site. |
|
|
Term
If a trainee meets all the prerequisites and requirements for a particular course, which two
major factors must you consider before you can recommend him/her with confidence?
a. Trainee ability and aptitude only.
b. Deliverables and replacements only.
c. Trainee availability and resources only.
d. Duty standby and leave schedules only. |
|
Definition
| Trainee availability and resources only. |
|
|
Term
Which is not a level of war?
a. Tactical.
b. Strategic.
c. Offensive.
d. Operational. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of military operation primarily involves irregular warfare?
a. Foreign humanitarian assistance.
b. Counterinsurgency.
c. Homeland defense.
d. Peace operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to Air Mobility Command
(AMC)?
a. 11 months before the fiscal year being reported.
b. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
c. 11 months before the calendar year being reported.
d. 23 months before the calendar year being reported. |
|
Definition
| 23 months before the fiscal year being reported. |
|
|
Term
How far in advance does Air Mobility Command (AMC) publish the monthly passenger
and cargo schedules, respectively?
a. 90 days and 30 days before the beginning of the operating month.
b. 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.
c. 45 days and 10 days before the beginning of the operating month.
d. 30 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month. |
|
Definition
| 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month. |
|
|
Term
If you are assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC) as an air transportation
function representative, you will be responsible for
a. monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module
System.
b. manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting
passengers.
c. controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
d. supervising the loading of deployment cargo aboard aircraft chalks. |
|
Definition
Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module
System. |
|
|
Term
If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for
a. controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
b. manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting
passengers.
c. monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module
System.
d. inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement
of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews. |
|
Definition
Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement
of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews. |
|
|
Term
If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for
a. controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
b. manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting
passengers.
c. monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module
System.
d. inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement
of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews. |
|
Definition
Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting
passengers. |
|
|
Term
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type
of training should you receive?
a. Initial.
b. Refresher.
c. Weak area.
d. New procedure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you are at an intransit station and a piece of cargo arrives with incorrect data, what should
you do?
a. Correct the data as soon as possible.
b. Call the originating station to have them correct the data.
c. Call the final destination to have them correct the data upon arrival.
d. Nothing; the data must remain the same throughout the system for consistency purposes. |
|
Definition
| Correct the data as soon as possible. |
|
|
Term
When a pallet with a radio frequency identification (RFID) tag passes through an
interrogator at a choke point, it provides intransit visibility (ITV) by
a. importing movement data via the passenger/mission ops interfaces and MANPER B disk input
function, specifically formatted so the data will properly import into GATES.
b. passing through the interrogator’s electromagnetic zone, “waking up,” and sending its
information to the interrogator and then to the Army’s data server.
c. interfacing with the X-MAN files through a spreadsheet with each cargo’s data listed in detail
so users can view real-time movement information.
d. integrating and streamlines base- or installation-level movement processes for both peacetime
and contingency cargo. |
|
Definition
Passing through the interrogator’s electromagnetic zone, “waking up,” and sending its
information to the interrogator and then to the Army’s data server. |
|
|
Term
When providing deployed intransit visibility, the Deployed Global Air Transportation
Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the
a. International Maritime Satellite (INMARSAT) reaches its data limit.
b. Global Transportation Network (GTN) captures all payload and manning data for the operation
or exercise.
c. wing operations center (WOC) authorizes the ITV team to capture the replication of data to the
main server.
d. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed remote (RGATES)/GATES systems have been
set up in its place. |
|
Definition
Capability is no longer necessary or until fixed remote (RGATES)/GATES systems have been
set up in its place. |
|
|
Term
If a natural or man-made disaster develops, the Joint Planning and Execution Community
(JPEC) uses which type of planning process in response to these types of situations?
a. Crisis.
b. Long term.
c. Diplomatic.
d. Contingency. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that
perceived threat?
a. Operation order (OPORD).
b. Operational Plan (OPLAN).
c. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
d. Deployment Plan (DEPLAN). |
|
Definition
| Operational Plan (OPLAN). |
|
|
Term
When an operation plan (OPLAN) is necessary for an operation, the abbreviated
information in which type of plan requires extensive development before being converted into an
OPLAN?
a. Operation order (OPORD).
b. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
c. Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
d. Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency
planning?
a. Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.
b. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans.
c. Headquarter Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to
logistics planners for deployment execution.
d. Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift
requirements are submitted to HQ AMC. |
|
Definition
| They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans. |
|
|
Term
In the final phase of the biennial planning, programming and budgeting system (BPPBS),
the approved project objective memorandums (POM) are converted into monetary terms with
justifications, which become
a. end of the fiscal year fall out monies.
b. the President’s budget submitted to Congress.
c. the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF).
d. a financial model for the entire Department of Defense (DOD). |
|
Definition
| The President’s budget submitted to Congress. |
|
|
Term
The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation
Planning And Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan
(CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to
a. each unit type code and contains all of the OPLANs and CONPLANs associated with the Joint
Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
b. an OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules
associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
c. each National Air Mobility System (NAMS) and contains all of the data used to aggregate
cargo category codes with the OPLAN or CONPLAN.
d. each cargo category code contained within the type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file and
contains detailed OPLAN and CONPLAN data. |
|
Definition
An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules
associated with that plan’s movement of forces. |
|
|
Term
If a user enters incorrect data into the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System
(JOPES), what could result?
a. Delays in force deployments and inefficient use of expensive strategic lift assets.
b. Transmission errors between JOPES to Global Status of Resources and Training System
(GSORTS).
c. Inefficient use of expensive strategic lift assets and transmission errors between JOPES and the
TPFDD.
d. Delays in training and transmission errors between JOPES and the time-phased force
deployment data (TPFDD). |
|
Definition
| Delays in force deployments and inefficient use of expensive strategic lift assets. |
|
|
Term
Within the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD), force modules provide a
a. means to organize unit line numbers (ULN) into groups useful to commanders and staffs.
b. way to track the number of days before an operation goes into the execution phase.
c. type of classification in the hierarchy of deployment training and force development.
d. link between the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) and the combatant commander. |
|
Definition
| Means to organize unit line numbers (ULN) into groups useful to commanders and staffs. |
|
|
Term
When projecting your unit’s resource (personnel or equipment) status for designed
operational capability (DOC) statements, if you have resources that are expected to be ready by
the response time, you will count them as
a. available.
b. unavailable.
c. in commission.
d. out of commission |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime
mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, you will report it as what C-level during Status
of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
a. C-1.
b. C-2.
c. C-3.
d. C-4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool
(ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking
status that is essential to
a. ensure a solid C-level.
b. smooth AEF execution.
c. assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings.
d. keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool
(ART) monitor, which of the following actions is not your responsibility?
a. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units.
b. Updating ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system.
c. Completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned unit type codes (UTC).
d. Resolving unit type code (UTC) posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers. |
|
Definition
| Processing ART role requests from subordinate units. |
|
|
Term
If you are performing duties as a unit deployment manager (UDM), who must you notify
when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower
document (UMD) authorizations?
a. The major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and wing manpower office
only.
b. The MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only.
c. The MAJCOM FAM and manpower offices and wing commander only.
d. The wing and MAJCOM manpower office only. |
|
Definition
| The MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only. |
|
|
Term
If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a
unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM)
functional area manager (FAM) to
a. request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational
capabilities (DOC) statement.
b. remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until
the deficiencies are corrected.
c. request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource
support.
d. reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you
can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies. |
|
Definition
Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational
capabilities (DOC) statement. |
|
|
Term
What is the relationship between starter stocks and swing stocks?
a. Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are
positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one
theater of operation.
b. Swing stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; starter stocks are
positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one
theater of operation.
c. The amount of swing stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base
allowance from the authorized starter stock.
d. The amount of starter stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base
allowance from the authorized swing stock. |
|
Definition
Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are
positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one
theater of operation. |
|
|
Term
If you possess war reserve material (WRM) assets that do not have inspection guidance
procedures, how should you conduct inspections at a minimum?
a. Annually, by selecting a random sampling of 10 percent.
b. Annually, by selecting a random sampling of 25 percent.
c. Semi-annually, by selecting a random sampling of 10 percent.
d. Semi-annually, by selecting a random sampling of 25 percent. |
|
Definition
| Annually, by selecting a random sampling of 25 percent. |
|
|
Term
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the
support required, which can result in one of which two types of documents?
a. A memorandum of agreement (MOA) and a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
b. An ISP and an MOU.
c. An installation support plan (ISP) and an MOA.
d. A memorandum of support (MOS) and a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA). |
|
Definition
| A memorandum of agreement (MOA) and a memorandum of understanding (MOU). |
|
|
Term
Before performing joint inspections (JI), in addition to upgrade training (UGT), formal
training and Web-based training requirements, JI personnel must be
a. knowledgeable of their host wing’s installation deployment plan and publications applicable to
JI.
b. certified in the equipment preparation of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Affiliation course
and local technical specialist training.
c. knowledgeable of the Cargo Movement Operating System (CMOS) and the Global Air
Mobility Movement System.
d. certified in the Logistics Module (LOGMOD) System and the Automated Air Load Planning
System (AALPS). |
|
Definition
Knowledgeable of their host wing’s installation deployment plan and publications applicable to
JI. |
|
|
Term
In addition to a working knowledge of automated and manual load planning and
manifesting procedures, before you can perform load planning duties and be identified in writing
by your unit commander as being fully qualified to load plan each specific type of aircraft, you
must be a
a. 7-skill level or higher and be at least technical specialist qualified.
b. 5-skill level or higher and be at least technical specialist qualified.
c. 7-skill level or higher and be at least hazardous materials preparer qualified.
d. 5-skill level or higher and be at least hazardous materials inspector qualified. |
|
Definition
| 5-skill level or higher and be at least hazardous materials inspector qualified. |
|
|
Term
Manpower authorizations are also known as
a. unfunded manpower requirements.
b. funded manpower requirements.
c. deferments.
d. validations |
|
Definition
| Funded manpower requirements. |
|
|
Term
To ensure personnel requirements are what they should be, you should compare which two
documents?
a. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
b. The UMD and the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report.
c. The AMC Form 82 and the Installation Deployment Plan (IDP).
d. The UMPR and the AMC Form 82. |
|
Definition
| The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR). |
|
|
Term
Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the
mission?
a. Work center rotation schedule.
b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
c. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
d. AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107. |
|
Definition
| Unit Manpower Document (UMD). |
|
|
Term
If an augmentation program is required for your installation, what will dictate how it will be
implemented and managed?
a. Local procedures.
b. Major command (MAJCOM) guidance.
c. Squadron operating instructions (SOI).
d. Unit deployment manager (UDM) guidance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Members who are assigned to a unit type code (UTC) are normally not assigned
augmentation duties because
a. the augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual’s contract before
performing augmentation duty.
b. they are subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, which takes priority over local
augmentation requirements.
c. they are subject to legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work
around.
d. if they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime
pay. |
|
Definition
They are subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, which takes priority over local
augmentation requirements. |
|
|
Term
When performing a joint inspection (JI), you annotate the “start time” block on DD Form
2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by entering the
a. local time the JI actually started.
b. local time the JI is scheduled to start.
c. Greenwich Meantime the JI actually started.
d. Greenwich Meantime the JI is scheduled to start. |
|
Definition
| Local time the JI actually started. |
|
|
Term
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift,
you must ensure
a. you verify the material inside the cart is, in fact, nitrogen.
b. vent kit materials accompany the cart and technicians are available at load time.
c. you release the valves on the left side of the cart so the nitrogen does not expand in flight.
d. valve stems on the pressure panel are serviceable and caps are present and properly installed. |
|
Definition
| Vent kit materials accompany the cart and technicians are available at load time. |
|
|
Term
During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark an internal slingable unit (ISU) as
acceptable for airlift, you must ensure the cargo within it is secured and restrained
a. to prevent movement and damage during flight.
b. with three 2 x 4 wooden beams spanning the width of the ISU.
c. to allow room for hazardous materials to expand and reduce during flight.
d. with ¼-inch nylon rope to secure all hazardous materials to the doors to prevent opening. |
|
Definition
| To prevent movement and damage during flight. |
|
|
Term
If a commander directs a self-inspection, when may he or she do so?
a. Every six months.
b. Every quarter.
c. At any time.
d. Annually. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When processing cargo for landbridge shipping, what is your next step if the TCN or pallet
ID in the GATES shows an onward mode of “A” for air?
a. Assign the shipment a grid or bay location.
b. Change the onward mode to “S.”
c. Change the onward mode to “B.”
d. Change the onward mode to “L.” |
|
Definition
| Change the onward mode to “L.” |
|
|
Term
When consignees arrive to pick up cargo with a hand-carried release of cargo authorization
letter, what must you do before releasing the cargo to them?
a. Add the letter to the authorization book.
b. Verify the information by calling the individual’s unit.
c. Contact the aerial port operations officer for verification.
d. Verify their identity against their identification or common access card. |
|
Definition
| Verify the information by calling the individual’s unit. |
|
|
Term
When a USPS employee wants to pick-up some ordinary mail, but you do not recognize
him/her, what is your next step?
a. Check the list of USPS employees who are authorized to receipt for all types of mail.
b. Verify his/her USPS identification card against the local access list or DD Form 577.
c. Check the list of USPS employees who are authorized to receipt for ordinary mail.
d. Ask him/her to present a USPS identification card to verify his/her identity. |
|
Definition
| Ask him/her to present a USPS identification card to verify his/her identity. |
|
|
Term
Before releasing terminating cargo or mail to anyone, whether they are required to be on an
authorization letter or not, what must you obtain from them?
a. Signatures.
b. Truck/van number.
c. Identification cards.
d. Your supervisor’s permission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When using a TCMD to release cargo to a receiving agent, which blocks will they complete?
a. 24 and 25 and if applicable, 26 and 27.
b. 24 and 25 and if applicable, 40 and 41.
c. 28 and 29 and if applicable, 30 and 31.
d. 28 and 29 and if applicable, 40 and 41. |
|
Definition
| 28 and 29 and if applicable, 30 and 31. |
|
|
Term
When processing AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipments, how must the cargo be stored to allow
for ready identification and expeditious movement of the material?
a. The cargo moves too quickly to be stored.
b. Segregated from other cargo in the terminal.
c. In the supervisor’s office or in the truck, ready for loading.
d. Separated from hazardous materials by at least 88 inches in all directions. |
|
Definition
| Segregated from other cargo in the terminal. |
|
|
Term
When processing AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipments, you will transfer them on a handreceipt
basis using
a. GATES or manually produced cargo manifests.
b. an AMC Form 36.
c. a DD Form 1387–2.
d. an AMC Form 35 |
|
Definition
| GATES or manually produced cargo manifests. |
|
|
Term
When processing a terminating AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipment, which form must you
use to control and monitor each shipment?
a. AMC Form 36.
b. AF Form 36.
c. AMC Form 35.
d. AF Form 35. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When processing an originating AMC MICAP/VVIP/FSS shipment, which form must you
use to control and monitor each shipment?
a. AMC Form 36.
b. AF Form 36.
c. AMC Form 35.
d. AF Form 35. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During a green sheet action at Ramstein AB, Germany, after the green sheet request is
submitted to the ACA, who does the ACA notify?
a. ATOC.
b. CSB.
c. Special handling.
d. Load planning. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you have received and signed an AMC Form 101, what will be entered into the GATES
in the prime TCMD record and trailer data to show the shipment as green sheet?
a. “T_I” in the miscellaneous information block and “GS” in the special priority field only.
b. “GS” in the miscellaneous information block and “G” in the special priority field only.
c. “T_I” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime
hour and date the request was received] only.
d. a “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime
hour and date the request was received] only. |
|
Definition
a “G” in the special priority field and the phrase “Green sheet as of [the Greenwich Meantime
hour and date the request was received] only. |
|
|
Term
When processing palletized green sheet cargo using manual procedures, to ensure the
shipment is properly identified, the two documents must you annotate are the
a. DD Form 1384 and the DD Form 2775.
b. AMC Form 101 and the DD Form 1015.
c. DD Form 1387–2 and the DD Form 1907.
d. pallet contents listing and the manifest. |
|
Definition
| DD Form 1384 and the DD Form 2775. |
|
|
Term
When processing green sheet cargo, if you do not have enough airlift to move all green
sheet cargo on-hand for a particular destination, how will you move the remaining cargo and who
must you notify?
a. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the air terminal
operations officer.
b. By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the TACC.
c. In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC.
d. By destination, priority, and system entry time; notify the air terminal operations officer. |
|
Definition
| In the sequence in which it was green sheeted by each specific service; notify the TACC. |
|
|
Term
While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387–2 for a classified shipment, if
any of the information required for the form is classified, how many copies will the shipper
complete with all the essential classified data and a signature?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387–2 for a classified shipment, if
none of the information entered in the blocks of the form is classified, how many total copies of
the form will the shipper complete?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. One.
d. Four. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
While you are processing and inspecting the DD Form 1387–2 on a classified shipment,
when the information is classified, which blocks will the shipper complete?
a. All of them; however, the form then must be handled as classified material.
b. Blocks 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7 only.
c. Blocks 3, 4, 5, & 6 only.
d. Blocks 3, 4, & 5 only. |
|
Definition
| Blocks 3, 4, 5, & 6 only. |
|
|
Term
Before transferring security or classified shipments to someone, you must ensure the
individual
a. is military or civilian and possess valid identification.
b. possesses valid identification and a valid security manifest.
c. has a valid need to know and appropriate level security clearance.
d. is a US military or US civilian and possesses the appropriate level security clearance. |
|
Definition
| is a US military or US civilian and possesses the appropriate level security clearance. |
|
|
Term
When unescorted classified shipments under the care of the aircraft commander or
designated representative arrive at the destination, what must you do immediately?
a. Take custody of the shipment and notify the duty officer that it is in your possession.
b. Inventory the contents of the shipment and verify all seal numbers before taking custody.
c. Notify the consignee of the arrival and obtain a receipt when you turn the shipment over to the
consignee.
d. Notify the ATOC that the crew member/representative will need to stay with the shipment until
the consignee arrives to transfer custody. |
|
Definition
Notify the consignee of the arrival and obtain a receipt when you turn the shipment over to the
consignee. |
|
|
Term
When processing security and classified shipments, each shipment must be inventoried and
accountability will be transferred using an AMC Form 214 or equivalent at what interval(s)?
a. Each time a shipment is placed in or removed from the storage facility.
b. At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day.
c. Once daily at any point throughout the day, mission permitting.
d. As close to 0001 hours local time each Sunday. |
|
Definition
| At the closest shift change to 0001 hours local time each day. |
|
|
Term
When securing AA&E shipments during transport between the storage area and the terminal
or aircraft, how many people are required to accompany the shipment for risk category codes I
and II?
a. None.
b. One.
c. Two.
d. Three. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Before sealing a container of registered mail, what must you place inside the container for
use at the destination station?
a. Boxcar seal.
b. Content listing.
c. Copy of the registered mail manifest.
d. DD Form 1907. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After you have containerized registered mail shipments into one box, what is the first step in
sealing the container?
a. Place a boxcar seal at the band crimp where it cannot be removed if the bands were cut.
b. Band the containers with four metal or plastic bands, two along the width and two along the
length.
c. Assign pallet identifiers to the container and cap the pallet as a skid using 0.5 in the equivalent
positions column.
d. Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both
individuals’ signatures, across the tape. |
|
Definition
Tape the container shut and prominently annotate the boxcar seal number, as well as both
individuals’ signatures, across the tape. |
|
|
Term
If an aircrew member notices a discrepancy with a registration number on a registered mail
shipment, what must you do before aircraft departure?
a. Correct it and generate a new manifest.
b. Correct it by making pen-and-ink changes to the manifest.
c. Write a statement on the manifest with the discrepancy and notify the down-line station to
correct it.
d. Annotate the incorrect mail shipment as a short-shipment and hand-scribe the correct
information at the bottom of the manifest. |
|
Definition
| Correct it and generate a new manifest. |
|
|
Term
If a registered mail shipment with a discrepancy cannot be corrected before aircraft
departure, what should you do?
a. Write a statement on the manifest with the discrepancy and notify the down-line station to
correct it.
b. Have the responsible aircrew member write the discrepancy on the manifest and sign it.
c. Bump it and annotate the discrepant mail shipment as a short-shipment.
d. Bump it and generate a new manifest. |
|
Definition
| Bump it and generate a new manifest. |
|
|
Term
Before transferring custody of registered mail on a terminating mission, you and the aircrew
member will
a. inspect the container to verify the contents.
b. reseal the container to ensure safe offload operations.
c. sign across the tape of the container to signify joint custody.
d. download the container and generate a new manifest to ensure expedited handling and
accuracy. |
|
Definition
| inspect the container to verify the contents. |
|
|
Term
When receipting for a terminating registered mail shipment in which the manifested TCN
does not match the TCN on the shipment, after you have annotated the manifested TCN as a short
shipment and listed the correct TCN at the bottom of the manifest as an over shipment, what is
your next step?
a. Bump the shipment and generate a new manifest only.
b. You and the crew member will both sign the manifest to confirm the discrepancy only.
c. Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and
the crew member will both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy.
d. Annotate the original copy of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then
you and the crew member will both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy. |
|
Definition
Annotate all copies of the manifest with a statement describing the discrepancy; then you and
the crew member will both sign the statement to confirm the discrepancy. |
|
|
Term
When processing HR, within how many hours should planned movement of HR occur
before the TACC takes appropriate measures to expedite onward movement of HR?
a. 6.
b. 12.
c. 18.
d. 24 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When loading human remains, in the event jettisoning is necessary, load remains
a. in the rear-most available level cargo position.
b. in the forward-most available level cargo position.
c. on the ramp; they can be moved to the side, if necessary.
d. in the forward-most available cargo position; remains cannot be jettisoned. |
|
Definition
| in the forward-most available level cargo position. |
|
|
Term
When processing perishable shipments, when must you review the AMC Form 106, to
ensure re-icing is accomplished as necessary?
a. Once a day.
b. Once a week.
c. Once a month.
d. At the beginning of each shift. |
|
Definition
| At the beginning of each shift. |
|
|
Term
When re-icing whole blood shipments, which re-icing material is acceptable to use?
a. Dry ice.
b. Wet ice.
c. Gel-freeze.
d. Salted wet ice. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When conducting an air terminal inventory, if you find a discrepancy on a pallet that you
cannot correct, what should you do?
a. Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it.
b. Delete the pallet from the system and prepare a deleted pallet report.
c. Place the pallet in FR7 status and notify the ACA.
d. Enter the discrepancy into the trailer data so the downline station can fix it upon arrival. |
|
Definition
| Let the appropriate work center know so they can fix it. |
|
|
Term
When conducting an air terminal inventory on loose cargo, in addition to verifying the
APOD, TCN, date received, and air commodity/special handling code, you must also verify the
warehouse location,
a. number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
b. priority, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
c. configuration, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
d. APOE, priority, and number of pieces only. |
|
Definition
| priority, number of pieces, weight, and cube only. |
|
|
Term
When conducting an air terminal inventory on palletized cargo, in addition to verifying the
pallet ID, hour and date of oldest SET on the pallet, the APOE/APOD, module type code, and
type cargo code, you must also verify the
a. configuration, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only.
b. bay/grid/zone location, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only.
c. configuration, bay/grid/zone location, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube
only.
d. air commodity/special handling code, configuration, bay/grid/zone location, transportation
priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only. |
|
Definition
configuration, bay/grid/zone location, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube
only. |
|
|
Term
When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Ramstein AB, Germany, which of the
following pieces of cargo would you select first based on TP, expedited handling indicators, and
SET in GMT?
a. TP–1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.
b. TP–2; 777; SET: 25 July 09/1400 GMT.
c. TP–1; SET: 25 July 09/1630 GMT.
d. TP–1; SET: 25 July 09/1430 GMT. |
|
Definition
| TP–1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT. |
|
|
Term
When computing an aircraft critical leg ACL, to determine the aircraft’s operating weight,
what information will you need from the command post?
a. Fuel weight.
b. Aircraft basic weight.
c. Allowable takeoff gross weight.
d. Total payload, including cargo and passengers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When computing an aircraft critical leg ACL, the two numbers you must add to equal the
total aircraft weight upon takeoff include the aircraft
a. basic weight and fuel weight.
b. basic weight and payload weight.
c. operating weight and cargo weight.
d. operating weight and takeoff fuel weight. |
|
Definition
| operating weight and takeoff fuel weight. |
|
|
Term
Which activity completes the task of manual cargo selection?
a. Inspecting the cargo.
b. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.
c. Conducting an inventory on the cargo you selected.
d. Determining the aircraft critical leg ACL. |
|
Definition
| Maintaining the pallet contents listing file. |
|
|
Term
When determining shoring requirements, if you use rolling shoring, you must also use
a. bridge shoring.
b. sleeper shoring.
c. parking shoring.
d. approach shoring. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When determining shoring requirements, which type is required to reduce the ramp angle a
vehicle must travel during on/offloading?
a. Rolling shoring.
b. Sleeper shoring.
c. Parking shoring.
d. Approach shoring. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When determining the shoring requirements for skidded cargo, which of the following
formulas would you use?
a. L × W.
b. L × W × number of skids.
c. Diameter2 × number of skids.
d. L × W × 0.785 × number of skids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When determining the shoring requirements for drums with rims, which of the following
formulas would you use?
a. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 × 0.785.
b. Inside rim diameter2 – outside rim diameter2 × 0.785.
c. Diameter2 × 0.785.
d. Diameter2 × 0.875. |
|
Definition
| Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 × 0.785. |
|
|
Term
When determining shoring requirements, to determine the effects of a piece of shoring 1/2″
thick, what is your first step?
a. Determine the new contact area.
b. Double the thickness of the shoring.
c. Divide the axle weight by the number of wheels on each axle.
d. Calculate a new psi for the given shoring thickness. |
|
Definition
| Double the thickness of the shoring. |
|
|
Term
When determining shoring requirements for a drum with a rim, after doubling the thickness
of the shoring,
a. add it to the outside and inside diameters.
b. subtract it from the outside and inside diameters.
c. add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.
d. subtract it from the outside diameter and add it to the inside diameter. |
|
Definition
| add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter. |
|
|
Term
When preparing a load plan, which type will you use for AMC channel missions?
a. AALPS load plans.
b. AF IMT 4080.
c. Computer Automated Load Manifesting load plans.
d. DD Form 2131-XX-series load plans. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When preparing a load plan, to figure out the percent of MAC for your aircraft, which two
figures will you need?
a. LEMAC and MAC.
b. Weight of all the cargo and the moments the cargo generates.
c. Cargo gross weight and aircraft fuselage stations.
d. Operating weight and zero fuel weight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You are preparing a manual manifest in fiscal year 2009, from McGuire AFB, NJ (WRI),
for a registered mail shipment destined to Ramstein AB, Germany (RMS). Which of the
following manifest number is correct to assign this manifest?
a. RMS 9M 00001.
b. RMS 1C 02009.
c. WRI 9M 00001.
d. WRI 1C 02009. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When preparing a DD Form 1385 as a backup manifest, complete
a. the manifest header and only pallet header and loose cargo/mail data in the body.
b. only the prime data and attach a pallet contents listing for each pallet manifested.
c. only the manifest header.
d. only the prime data. |
|
Definition
| The manifest header and only pallet header and loose cargo/mail data in the body. |
|
|
Term
When preparing a manual manifest, list
a. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in TCN sequence.
b. loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in TP sequence.
c. loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in pallet ID sequence.
d. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in SET sequence. |
|
Definition
| Pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in TCN sequence. |
|
|
Term
When preparing an aircraft for cargo loading, failure to accomplish which action before
starting loading operations will cause pallets to suddenly stop and could potentially damage the
aircraft rail system or injure load team members?
a. Communicate with the ATOC.
b. Align the auxiliary loading ramps with the vehicle’s tires.
c. Inspect the tie down rings and fittings.
d. Release the pallet locks |
|
Definition
| Release the pallet locks. |
|
|
Term
When preparing an aircraft for cargo loading, if you have a piece of cargo that needed to be
winched on from certain directions within the aircraft, which equipment item could you use in
conjunction with the cargo winch to help redirect the cable pull?
a. Bridge plates.
b. Snatch blocks.
c. Stabilizer struts.
d. Ground loading ramps. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During loading operations, what will vehicle operators ensure before moving the vehicle
toward an aircraft?
a. Required spotters are in place.
b. Tie down devices are spaced less than 18 inches apart.
c. The aircrew has required safety clearances between the cargo and the emergency exits.
d. Load team members have all required PPE and other safety equipment. |
|
Definition
| Required spotters are in place. |
|
|
Term
During loading operations, which of the following describes the best way to load pallets?
a. Push pallets, rather than pull them onto the aircraft.
b. Raise the K-loader bed while pallets transition onto the aircraft ramp.
c. Gravity feed them during high operations tempos to work more aircraft.
d. Position yourself between pallets that are locked in place and those being loaded when
necessary to control speed. |
|
Definition
| Push pallets, rather than pull them onto the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
During loading operations, when loading a vehicle directly from the platform of a K-loader,
bridge plates must be aligned with
a. the number one and four aircraft roller trays.
b. the number two and three aircraft roller trays.
c. all the rails of the K-loader being used for operations.
d. all wheels of the vehicle and equipment being loaded. |
|
Definition
| All wheels of the vehicle and equipment being loaded. |
|
|
Term
During loading operations, the driver of the vehicle being loaded onto the aircraft must turn
off the vehicle and remain inside until
a. the vehicle is fully restrained in all directions.
b. the user arrives at the aircraft to relieve him/her.
c. he/she sets the parking brake and places the vehicle in reverse.
d. the load team initially restrains the vehicle both forward and aft. |
|
Definition
| The load team initially restrains the vehicle both forward and aft. |
|
|
Term
As a load team chief, which of the following is not required before conducting an ERO?
a. Brief all personnel involved in the ERO operation on the route to and from the aircraft.
b. Ensure all load team members have required safety items.
c. Give all passengers the option to deplane if they wish.
d. Ensure all passengers have required safety items. |
|
Definition
| Give all passengers the option to deplane if they wish. |
|
|
Term
During ERO operations, before load team members approach the aircraft, the aircraft
engines must be in
a. low speed ground idle only.
b. reverse thrust or shut down only.
c. low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
d. forward thrust or low speed ground idle only. |
|
Definition
| Low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only. |
|
|
Term
During ERO operations, after the load team has been signaled by an aircrew member, team
members will use a route that takes them
a. perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
b. directly centerline to the aircraft ramp to help the loadmaster lower it.
c. parallel to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
d. most directly to the aircraft, and is the short route possible. |
|
Definition
| Perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline. |
|
|
Term
During ERO operations, before offloading passengers through the crew entrance door, you
must coordinate through the
a. airfield manager, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
b. aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
c. aircraft commander, the TACC, and ERO functional areas only.
d. airfield manager, the MOCC and ERO functional areas only. |
|
Definition
| Aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only. |
|
|
Term
Before performing concurrent servicing, all personnel must ground themselves to
a. a suitable grounding point or a large, painted surface of the aircraft.
b. a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft.
c. another load team member or the CSS.
d. a suitable grounding point within three feet of the aircraft fuel vent outlets. |
|
Definition
| a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
During concurrent servicing operations, if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself,
you must
a. reground yourself periodically during operations.
b. exit the flight line area until your electrostatic discharge dissipates.
c. change the battery on your radio before conducting any loading operations.
d. remove all laptop computers, cell phones and radio equipment from your vicinity. |
|
Definition
| Reground yourself periodically during operations. |
|
|
Term
The first step in determining passengers’ travel eligibility is to check
a. their identification.
b. travel restrictions and clearances.
c. their travel category and supporting documentation.
d. the CIC on the travel authorization. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When determining a passenger’s eligibility to travel, if a passenger presents questionable
travel orders, what is your first step?
a. Inform the passenger the document is questionable.
b. Allow the passenger the first available flight to his/her originating station.
c. Forward the documents with other supporting paperwork to HQ AMC.
d. Fax the orders to the nearest DFAS to verify authenticity. |
|
Definition
| Inform the passenger the document is questionable. |
|
|
Term
If a passenger is a non-command-sponsored dependent of a military member, residing
overseas with the sponsor, determine if the passenger is eligible for space-available travel and if
so, which category and location(s).
a. Category I; CONUS to CONUS only.
b. Category I; overseas to overseas only.
c. Category I; overseas to CONUS only.
d. This passenger is not eligible for space-available travel. |
|
Definition
| Category I; overseas to CONUS only. |
|
|
Term
If a customer is a command-sponsored dependent of a uniformed service member and is
accompanying his/her sponsor on approved circuitous travel, determine if he/she is eligible for
space-available travel and if so, in which travel category and between which locations.
a. This passenger is not eligible for space-available travel.
b. Category I, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS.
c. Category II, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS.
d. Category III, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS. |
|
Definition
| Category III, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS. |
|
|
Term
If a customer is a non-command-sponsored dependent, acquired in an overseas area during a
military member’s current tour of assigned duty and not otherwise entitled to transportation at the
government expense, determine which space-available category this passenger is eligible and
between which location(s).
a. Category V; CONUS to overseas only.
b. Category V; Overseas to overseas only.
c. Category VI; CONUS to overseas only.
d. Category VI; overseas to overseas only. |
|
Definition
| Category V; CONUS to overseas only. |
|
|
Term
Before entering space-available passengers’ information into the register, collect their AMC
Form 140 and other required travel documentation,
a. and place the form with the mission folder so records can begin the billing process.
b. and file the station copy according to travel priority, then by date and time of sign-up.
c. stamp the form with the date and time of sign-up and forward it to the records section.
d. allow them to sign-up for up to five destinations, then stamp the form with the date and time of
sign-up. |
|
Definition
Allow them to sign-up for up to five destinations, then stamp the form with the date and time of
sign-up. |
|
|
Term
When selecting passengers for travel, which of the following would you choose first?
a. Space-available category I; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1410.
b. Space-available category I; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1455.
c. Space-required priority 1; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1430.
d. Space-required priority 1; date and time of sign up 25 July at 1500. |
|
Definition
| Space-required priority 1; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1430. |
|
|
Term
When selecting space-available travelers from the standby listing, if a category I passenger
arrives at the terminal after roll call has begun; what should you do?
a. Notify the TACC.
b. Add him/her to the space-available register, and call him/her for the next available flight.
c. Check his/her travel documentation and if all of it is correct allow him/her a seat(s) on the
aircraft.
d. Contact the ATOC to request additional seating on the aircraft. |
|
Definition
Check his/her travel documentation and if all of it is correct allow him/her a seat(s) on the
aircraft. |
|
|
Term
When coordinating the movement of delayed space-required passengers, within how many
hours should you move passengers who were bumped for a higher priority passenger?
a. 24 hours.
b. 36 hours.
c. 48 hours.
d. 72 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When coordinating the movement of delayed space-required passengers, within how many
hours should you move delayed intransit passengers?
a. 12 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 48 hours.
d. 72 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When coordinating the movement of delayed space-required passengers, within how many
hours should you move passengers who are returning from emergency leave?
a. 12 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 48 hours.
d. 72 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a commercial-contracted mission is delayed and the delay is considered controllable,
who is responsible for caring for these passengers and what services will be provided at no cost to
the passenger?
a. The carrier; meals, lodging and transportation only.
b. The carrier; meals, lodging, transportation and phone charges only.
c. AMC; meals, lodging and transportation only.
d. AMC; meals, lodging, transportation, and phone charges only. |
|
Definition
| The carrier; meals, lodging and transportation only. |
|
|
Term
If a commercial contracted aircraft is delayed due to weather, who is responsible for caring
for passengers and what services will be provided at no cost to the passenger?
a. The carrier; lodging, and transportation only.
b. The carrier; meals, lodging and transportation only.
c. AMC; lodging and transportation only.
d. AMC; meals, lodging, and transportation only. |
|
Definition
| AMC; lodging and transportation only. |
|
|
Term
If a DV requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code will you use?
a. H.
b. M.
c. O.
d. T. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a DV requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors
code will you use?
a. H.
b. M.
c. O.
d. T. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a DV requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters only, which DV honors
code will you use?
a. H.
b. M.
c. Q.
d. T. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which circumstance would cause a passenger to be considered a Coin Assist passenger?
a. The passenger presented a Medal of Honor award certificate at the passenger service counter.
b. The passenger is traveling in conjunction with the death of a service member, civilian
employee, or dependent.
c. The passenger is traveling because a DOD member or dependent with whom he/she is affiliated
is critically ill.
d. The passenger is a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or
otherwise designated by the DOD. |
|
Definition
The passenger is a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or
otherwise designated by the DOD. |
|
|
Term
Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large-bodied passenger to use standard seat
belts?
a. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.
b. Side-wall seats with optional seat belt extensions.
c. Aft-facing seats with reclining capabilities.
d. Aft-facing seats with removable arm rests. |
|
Definition
| Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers. |
|
|
Term
If a female passenger who is less than six weeks postpartum wants to travel, then what must
she present to passenger agents?
a. A waiver from HQ AMC.
b. Females less than six weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel.
c. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
d. The infant’s birth certificate with a legible date of birth and signature of the medical doctor. |
|
Definition
| A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound. |
|
|
Term
If an MEGP passenger notifies the ATOC within three hours of aircraft departure, then
he/she
a. can proceed directly to the aircraft at any time within the three-hour timeframe.
b. will be added to the mission if there are space-available passengers onboard that can be
bumped.
c. can request cargo be downloaded to accommodate the number of personnel traveling in his/her
group.
d. will normally not be added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested
passengers. |
|
Definition
Will normally not be added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested
passengers. |
|
|
Term
If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great
customer service?
a. Smile.
b. Listen.
c. Speak clearly.
d. Ensure you are in compliance with AFI 36–2903. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?
a. Listening and asking good questions.
b. Enunciating your words and speaking slowly.
c. Being prepared for what you’re going to say next.
d. Speaking clearly and quickly enough so you’re not wasting their time. |
|
Definition
| Listening and asking good questions. |
|
|
Term
Once you receive the MLR from the previous station, your next step is to
a. file it in the station copy file.
b. give it to the ramp controller for reference and coordination.
c. determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
d. notify the TACC of any special handling cargo or passengers. |
|
Definition
| Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
When accomplishing a departure MLR, when the cargo breakdown section includes rolling
stock and multi-pallet trains, what other information about those items are included?
a. If security guards are required for any of the items.
b. If any of the items are inoperative on board the aircraft.
c. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
d. The equipment that will be needed to offload the items and other helpful remarks. |
|
Definition
| The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops. |
|
|
Term
When accomplishing a departure MLR with human remains cargo on board, choose the
answer that best represents the information that must be included in the report and in which
section the information is placed.
a. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
b. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; hazardous cargo section.
c. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123–45–6789; special interest cargo section.
d. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123–45–6789; hazardous cargo section. |
|
Definition
| SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section. |
|
|
Term
When accomplishing a departure MLR special interest cargo section, which type of
information is not included?
a. Registered mail information.
b. Human remains information.
c. Hazardous cargo information.
d. Re-icing/refrigerated shipments information. |
|
Definition
| Hazardous cargo information. |
|
|
Term
When completing the AMC Form 77, if an aerial port work center completes all tasks and
later returns to the aircraft, record the subsequent handling in which block?
a. Remarks.
b. Ground Time.
c. Time Available.
d. Coordination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, what will you enter into the
Location block for AMC MICAP shipments?
a. The location of your station.
b. The current location of the AMC MICAP shipment.
c. The pallet position the AMC MICAP is located on the aircraft.
d. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined. |
|
Definition
| The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined. |
|
|
Term
When completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, you will enter in the Explosives
block for cargo/mail data offload the total
a. weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.
b. weight of thru-load and offload explosives on the aircraft.
c. NEW of explosives offloaded at your station.
d. NEW of thru-load and offload explosives on the aircraft. |
|
Definition
| Weight of explosives off-loaded at your station. |
|
|
Term
When completing the outbound side of the AMC Form 77, you will enter in the Loadmaster
Scheduled Show block the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time
a. only.
b. and the initials of the command post representative passing the information only.
c. and the initials of the ATOC representative receiving the information only.
d. and the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the
information only. |
|
Definition
And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the
information only. |
|
|
Term
When completing the AMC Form 68 and a mission operates for more than one day,
a. transfer the information to a new AMC Form 68.
b. use the previous day’s AMC Form 68 until the mission is complete.
c. attach an AMC Form 77 to the AMC Form 68.
d. prepare an AMC Form 77 in lieu of the AMC Form 68. |
|
Definition
| Transfer the information to a new AMC Form 68. |
|
|
Term
When accomplishing airlift capability schedules, after extracting the necessary data from
the command and control systems or published schedules, what is your next step?
a. Monitor the schedules.
b. Adjust airlift as necessary.
c. Update the work centers with changed or new information.
d. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers. |
|
Definition
| Compile the information and distribute to the work centers. |
|
|
Term
When monitoring cargo capability, after you have run the local management reports and
compared them to available airlift, what is your last step?
a. Update the work centers with changed or new information.
b. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.
c. Extract the necessary data from appropriate C2 systems.
d. Work with your leadership and TACC to adjust airlift, if necessary. |
|
Definition
| Work with your leadership and TACC to adjust airlift, if necessary. |
|
|
Term
When clearing explosives shipments, request port-to-port clearance at the earliest possible
date, but no later than
a. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
b. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
c. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater
notification time only.
d. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater
notification time only. |
|
Definition
24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater
notification time only. |
|
|
Term
When requesting port-to-port clearance of explosives, which of the following is not required
on the explosives clearance request?
a. Mission number.
b. Pieces/weight/cube.
c. Requested departure date.
d. PSN and UN number. |
|
Definition
| Requested departure date. |
|
|
Term
An APOE will not ship explosives or applicable FMS shipments without APOD approval
except when
a. free-flow is authorized.
b. the APOD cannot be contacted for clearance.
c. airlift must be adjusted to accommodate the shipment.
d. the explosives validator ensures normal hazardous cargo restrictions have been met. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is considered to be the “eyes and ears” of the administrative contracting officer?
a. Squadron operations officer.
b. QAP.
c. Commercial load validator personnel.
d. ATOC personnel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which three levels of discrepancies can commercial carriers receive from QAP when using
AMC Form 166a?
a. Critical, major, and minor.
b. Go, no-go, and partially proficient.
c. Passenger, cargo, and general operations.
d. Satisfactory, unsatisfactory and not applicable. |
|
Definition
| Critical, major, and minor. |
|
|
Term
At the end of each month, what happens before AMC Form 56 is forwarded to the records,
reports, and analysis section?
a. It is included in the AMC A4 7107 report.
b. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
c. Manpower levels are adjusted based on the numbers entered.
d. It is used to project future workloads and document facts for various studies. |
|
Definition
| Section leadership reviews and verifies the information. |
|
|
Term
When completing AMC Form 56, ATOC personnel will complete the form after
a. a load plan is re-accomplished.
b. pallets are reconfigured due to opportune airlift.
c. cargo is frustrated to ACA/CSB.
d. pre-built pallets arrived improperly configured and are reconfigured by aerial port personnel. |
|
Definition
| A load plan is re-accomplished. |
|
|
Term
When completing the cargo rehandled block of AMC Form 56, who is required to review
and sign the form after it is complete?
a. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft
workload.
b. The records, reports, and analysis representative accepting the form.
c. The individual making entries on the form.
d. The squadron operations officer. |
|
Definition
The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft
workload. |
|
|
Term
When completing AMC Form 108, which information is entered into the Remarks block?
a. Rationale for the rehandled action.
b. Number of passengers retransported.
c. Work center performing the rehandled work.
d. Call sign corresponding with the mission number |
|
Definition
| Rationale for the rehandled action. |
|
|
Term
When reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation, which report will aerial port
management review daily?
a. Excessive PHT or SET.
b. Over/short shipment report.
c. Manifest header summary.
d. Pallet listing report. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When reconciling manifests, what is your first step?
a. Notify HQ AMC.
b. Correcting the data to ensure proper billing.
c. Accounting for all the skips on the manifest register.
d. Researching all skipped manifest numbers on the manifest register. |
|
Definition
| Researching all skipped manifest numbers on the manifest register. |
|
|
Term
Data records personnel can file AMC Form 77 in the station files after they have reviewed
the folder to ensure
a. each aircraft’s schedule of events occurred on time.
b. skipped manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
c. manifest numbers are in sequential order based on aircraft time of departure and deleted
manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
d. all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply
to that mission are included in the package. |
|
Definition
All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply
to that mission are included in the package. |
|
|
Term
When reviewing AMC Form 77, if data records personnel notice any discrepancies, what
will they do?
a. Notify the squadron operations officer so he/she can direct corrective action.
b. Send the package back to the ATOC for corrections or correct it themselves.
c. Send the discrepant portion(s) of the package back to the work center responsible for creating
the document.
d. Notify the TACC that proper billing cannot take place due to the discrepancies. |
|
Definition
| Send the package back to the ATOC for corrections or correct it themselves. |
|
|
Term
When maintaining CFPs, file each by
a. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year.
b. Julian date beginning with the start of the calendar year.
c. GMT beginning with the start of the fiscal year.
d. GMT beginning with the start of the calendar year. |
|
Definition
| Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year. |
|
|
Term
When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission number changes what must
you do before filing the new AMC Form 77?
a. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.
b. Duplicate all the information from the old AMC Form 77 onto the new one and file.
c. Write the old mission number on the new AMC Form 77 in the remarks section.
d. File each AMC Form 77 separately with remarks annotated on each. |
|
Definition
| Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77. |
|
|
Term
When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission originates and terminates at
the same station, how will you file the CFP(s)?
a. Consolidate them into one CFP and file under originating regardless of minor mission number
changes.
b. Print an additional copy of the terminating AMC Form 77 and file it with the originating CFP.
c. Separate the files by TWCF and non-TWCF for filing.
d. Maintain two separate files; one for terminating and one for originating. |
|
Definition
Consolidate them into one CFP and file under originating regardless of minor mission number
changes. |
|
|
Term
When maintaining manifest registers, maintain one current
a. fiscal year plus one inactive year.
b. fiscal year plus two inactive years.
c. calendar year plus one inactive year.
d. calendar year plus two inactive years. |
|
Definition
| Fiscal year plus one inactive year. |
|
|
