Shared Flashcard Set

Details

2t251
volume 2
100
Other
12th Grade
07/09/2017

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

 

A shipper is responsible for
Definition
A. 

Challenging shipments that do not meet applicable airlift requirements.

Term
Which of the following is not a purpose of the advance TCMD?
Definition
B. 

It allows APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment

Term
What is another name for a receiver?
Definition
C. 

A consignor

Term
Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags?
Definition
B. 

The transshipper

Term
When is a shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?
Definition
D. 

When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice.

Term
How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?
Definition
D. 

18.

Term
You perform a soft reset on the HHT by pressing
Definition
C. 

Shift + Escape + Send keys

Term
What two types of information are entered on the TCMD?
Definition
C. 

Prime data and secondary data

Term
Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation explains how to fill out a TCMD block-by-block?
Definition
B. 

Appendix M

Term
What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?
Definition
C. 

Whether shipments have one or more outsized dimensions

Term
Which position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment?
Definition
D. 

The last position

Term

 

Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
Definition
C. 

TP-3.

Term
Which TP is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?
Definition
C. 

TP-3.

Term
How many days must TP-4 cargo remain at an aerial port before the air terminal manager (ATM) can decide to send it through surface modes or upgrade it to TP-2?
Definition
D. 

45 days.

Term

 

The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the
Definition
D. 

Three-digit Julian date.

Term
When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for
Definition
C. 

Signs of damage and pilferage.

Term
Identification markings and labels tell you
Definition
C. 

How to refuse a shipment

Term
You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?
Definition
B. 

10.

Term
You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal
Definition
B. 

When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.

Term
Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
Definition
C. 

SF Faint 361.

Term
After the CSB/ACA corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33 to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?
Definition
C. 

Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected, and file them both

Term
What must you annotate on both copies of the TCMD when receipting for a shipment?
Definition
D. 

Your initials and the date you received the cargo.

Term
When the SET is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the
Definition
B. 

TAC, project code, and type pack code.

Term
Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo?
Definition
B. 

6 hours.

Term
You finalize the receipt of a shipment by
Definition
B. 

Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD

Term
An over shipment is a shipment that
Definition
C. 

Arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.

Term
Who is responsible for initialing an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?
Definition
C. 

TMO/air freight.

Term
You leave intransit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie down or RFID tags when the pallets
Definition
A. 

Are destined for more than one location

Term

 

Terminating cargo release letters are effective for how long from the date they are authenticated by the organizational commander?
Definition
C. 

Six months.

Term
Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?
Definition
A. 

Accomplished the SDDG

Term
All personnel who operate, handle, transport, or load missiles, explosives, or nuclear weapons must receive which type of training and how often?
Definition
B. 

Technical specialist training; annually.

Term
Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?
Definition
B. 

Class 2.

Term
Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?
Definition
C. 

Class 3.

Term
Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?
Definition
C. 

Class 6.

Term
Which hazardous materials class consists of miscellaneous hazardous materials?
Definition
D. 

Class 9.

Term
How should hazardous materials be positioned on a pallet or in the back of a vehicle?
Definition
C. 

So the labels are hidden from public view

Term
What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments?
Definition
D. 

DD Form 1385.

Term

 

How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at aircraft?
Definition
B. 

Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.

Term
Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?
Definition
B. 

Class 1.6.

Term
Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?
Definition
A. 

Class 1.1.

Term
When a load contains class 1.1, class 1.2, and class 1.3 materials, which placard will you use?
Definition
A. 

DANGEROUS

Term
In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles
Definition
D. 

Must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.

Term

 

In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, if the material is not listed or there is a blank space in the table, that means these articles
Definition
C. 

Have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility

Term
How many fire extinguishers, at a minimum, must be available for use at any location where explosives are handled?
Definition
C. 

Two

Term
How many fire extinguishers must a vehicle contain while transporting explosives?
Definition
B. 

One.

Term
Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?
Definition
D. 

Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.

Term
During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft will be
Definition
D. 

Vented

Term
Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?
Definition
D. 

DD Form 1387-2

Term
If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form(s) must shippers complete?
Definition
D. 

DD Form 1387-2.

Term
What is DCS material?
Definition
D. 

Human remains shipments that require courier escort.

Term
You stow HR shipments on the aircraft with the
Definition
A. 

Head higher than the feet and the feet towards the nose of the aircraft

Term
What is the maximum number of HR transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?
Definition
C. 

6.

Term
You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration?
Definition
C. 

AMC Form 106

Term
When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the
Definition
A. 

TCN and register number.

Term
You have received a terminating piece of AMC MICAP cargo with a receipt time of 0815 GMT. What is the latest time it must be available to the consignee?
Definition
C. 

0845 GMT

Term
You work at an air terminal without an ACA or a CSB and receive a call from a Navy customer who wants to green sheet some Navy equipment. Who will initiate green sheet action for this customer when it is necessary to meet a shipment's RDD.
Definition
C. 

The squadron commander.

Term
An 8,000 pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet, and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
Definition
B. 

7,500 pounds.

Term
You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. How many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?
Definition
C. 

Two.

Term
Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?
Definition
D. 

A 100-inch high pallet weighing 12,150 pounds

Term
While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable RFID tags still attached to the nets. What must you do with these unserviceable tags?
Definition
C. 

Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair.

Term
You are issuing three CGU-1/B straps to an AFSOC C-130. Which form would you use to maintain accountability for the items issued to this aircraft?
Definition
A. 

AMC Form 8001, AMC Key Asset and Equipment Report.

Term
You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy, and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?
Definition
D. 

Weight and SET.

Term
Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463L pallet after it is built?
Definition
C. 

DD Form 1907, Signature and Tally Record and AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice

Term

For the locks on a C-17 to clear the cargo and engage properly, household goods containers may overhang the 108-inch side, provided they overhang no more than
Definition
A. 

3/4 inch.

Term
How much of an aisleway must you create on the usable surface of a pallet loaded in the wheel well area of a C-130?
Definition
C. 

8 inches.

Term

 

You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a C/B?
Definition
D. 

A small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 pounds.

Term
Calculate the CBFFE for a multi-pallet train with information in figure CE2.
Definition
C. 

149 inches.

Term
Calculate the CBFFE for a multi-axle vehicle with information in figure CE3.
Definition
A. 

88 inches

Term

 

At a minimum, how much ramp services experience should load planning personnel have?
Definition
A. 

3 months.

Term
At a minimum, what hazardous materials qualification must load planners have?
Definition
C. 

Inspector.

Term

 

The KC-10 has two basic configurations for load planning. When seat kits are installed, how many pallet positions are available for cargo?
Definition
B. 

18

Term
What is the maximum height allowed for the belly pallets of a B-747?
Definition
D. 

68 inches

Term
You are working load planning and your supervisor tasked you to conduct inventory. Which areas of the air terminal will you inventory?
Definition
D. 

Hazardous and explosive cargo.

Term
How much weight an aircraft can carry is called the
Definition
C. 

RDL.

Term

Which type of load plan are users authorized to use when they do not have AALPS capability?
Definition
C. 

DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification

Term
What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo?
Definition
D. 

Ease of offload at the downline station.

Term
You need to manually manifest cargo. Which form would you use?
Definition
C. 

DD Form 2130-XX series load plans

Term
Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest?
Definition
C. 

AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

Term
Which forklift is designed for operating on rough terrain?
Definition
D. 

10K AT.

Term
You are driving a forklift; when is it safe to raise or lower a load on the fork tines?
Definition
B. 

Only after you have secured the pallet to the tines

Term
When parking a forklift, how do you position the tines?
Definition
A. 

There are no requirements for positioning the tines when parking a forklift

Term
What is the 40K loader winch's capacity in both low and high range modes, respectively?
Definition
C. 

5,000/10,000 pounds

Term
Which cab controls on the 60K-loader are used to operate the deck functions when on/offloading cargo?
Definition
D. 

The primary deck control indicator light.

Term
Which K-loader has a deck range up to 225 inches and allows adjustable pallet guides to accomodate pallets on the 88- or 108-inch side?
Definition
A. 

25K

Term
You are working on a load crew. At which deck height are you required to wear a fall restraint harness?
Definition
C. 

8 feet.

Term
You are bridging two 60K-loaders to accelerate loading operations and you need to transfer all your pallets from one to the other. Which of the following best describes how to do this?
Definition
B. 

Place a spotter on the K-loader to unchain the rolling stock and monitor wing-tip clearances and vapor emissions.

Term
You are conducting a before-operation inspection of a K-loader. Which action will you complete?
Definition
B. 

Review the AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, for open discrepancies

Term
You are performing a before-operation inspection on a 4K forklift. You must open the hood to check for which items?
Definition
B. 

Security of the battery terminals.

Term
You are performing a during-operation inspection on a 10K forklift. Which fluid level will you check?
Definition
C. 

Transmission.

Term

 

You are inspecting a 40K-loader. During which part of the inspection will you check the steering and steering wheel for free play and excessive wear?
Definition
C. 

After operation.

Term
You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways. Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways?
Definition
B. 

Parking shoring.

Term
You are loading a trailer on a C-5 that is very long, very tall, and has extremely low ground clearances. In order to reduce the ramp angle this vehicle must travel during the onload, which type of shoring would you use?
Definition
B. 

Parking shoring

Term
How do you secure rolling stock to a K-loader
Definition
C. 

Forward and aft with chains and devices.

Term
Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft?
Definition
C. 

The cargo winch and snatch blocks.

Term
You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?
Definition
C. 

Loading zone

Term
You are spotting a 60K in to an aircraft. How many feet minimum from the aircraft must you stop the vehicle operator for preliminary alignment?
Definition
A. 

5 feet

Term
You are loading passengers on a C-17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a minimum?
Definition
D. 

40 inches

Term
How many 25,000-pound chains would you use to restrain a piece of cargo weighing 17,700 pounds for vertical direction when the cargo is restrained to the floor of a C-5?
Definition
D. 

6.

Term
Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?
Definition
C. 

Three.

Term
When can passengers enter or exit an aircraft during concurrent servicing operations?
Definition
B. 

When the cargo load team chief tells them to.

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