An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes (AFSC).  Which type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty?

a. Air Force specialty code (AFSC)

b. Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC).

c. Primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC).

d. Control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC).

An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of 

a. people requiring common interest.

b. numbers requiring similar knowledge.

c. letters requiring common qualifications.

d. positions requiring common qualifications.

A duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC (Air Force specialty code)

a. used to identify a specialty.

b. in which an individual is best qualified to perform duty.

c. used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty.

d. used for enlisted Airman assignments, training requirements, and promotions.

A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a

a. career field

b. duty

c. position

d. skill level

A senior Airman may use the title Supervisor when he or she

a. has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others.

b. doesn't have a title that accurately reflects his or her day-to-day duties.

c. supervises multiple flights or squadrons and has graduated ALS.

d. is in charge of a work center and has completed his or her upgrade training.

Which specialty is not a part of the transportation career field?

a. Air Transportation.

b. Air Traffic Control

c. Traffic Management

d. Vehicle Management

Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?

a. Job experience.

b. Job knowledge.

c. Job proficiency.

d. Job requirement.

How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development courses (CDC)?

a. 30 days

b. 45 days

c. 60 days

d. 90 days

Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?

a. Trainee

b. Trainer

c. Certifier

d. Supervisor

Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training?

a. Trainee

b. Trainer

c. Certifier

d. Supervisor

Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT)

a. Understand particular deployment and home station training requirements.

b. Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.

c. Obtain and maintain knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels.

d. Budget on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks within established time limits.

What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?

a. 6 months

b. 12 months

c. 15 months

d. 18 months

Before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7-skill levels all core tasks must be identified..

a. in the CEFTP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor

b. by the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the CFETP

c. by the commander and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor

d. by the supervisor and other duty position tasks identified by the commander

Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?

a. Master Training Plan (MTP)

b. Master Task List (MTL)

c. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

d. Specialty Training Standards (STS)

The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive

a. core training document that identifies education and training requirements.

b. instructional package that supports and standardizes job knowledge training

c. instructional document that lists professional enhancement criteria for a specialty

d. core training package that outlines task evaluation checklists and training assessments.

The scale values on the proficiency code key indate 

a. that training is not required due to limitations in resources

b. how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject

c. that the task indicated will be taught during wartime and humanitarian operations

d. how much information will be required to recite back to the supervisor

Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS)?

a. AF IMT 797

b. AF IMT 623a

c. AF IMT 2096

d. AETC 156

- Develop, use, and maintain training documentation to manage work center and individual training.

- Ensure you meet all mandatory requirements prior to submission for skill level upgrade.

- Attend the UTM's quarterly training meetings

- Conduct and document work center orientations and intial evaluation of your qualifications within 60 days of assignment

- Schedule and conduct supervised training sessions

- Select trainers and certifiers based on skill qualifications.

Administer the CDC program for all assigned trainees.

- Provide evaluatoins and certifications from the trainer to verify a trainee's qualification. 

- Brief the trainee, supervisor and trainer on the evaluation results

- Actively participate in all opportunities for training.

- Comprehend the applicable CFETP requirements and career path.

- Obtain and maintain knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill levels within the assigned specialty.

- Budget on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks, especially CDC and self study training requiremetns within established time limits.

- Request assistance from the supervisor, trainer, and UTM when having difficulty with any part of training

- Acknowledge and document task qualification upon completion of 

- Understand deployment and home station requirements

- Elminates OJT records trainscription and reduces reviewing and updating times.

- Allows personnel to spend less time on records and more time on the job,

- Allows supervisors, training managers, and commanders to instantly and easily access training records, reports, and statistics on unit members,

- Allows worldwide access through the AF Portal so individuals can take a more proactive role in their own training and career development, even when TDY or deployed.

What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program?

a. Minimize loss of Air Force property and money.

b. Minimize loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel.

c. Increase situational awareness resources and protect personnel.

d. Decrease situational awareness of resources and protect personnel.

You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend.  Your responsibility under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly 

a. report the injury to your supervisor.

b. quit the basketball team for the season.

c. wrap and ice it so you can continue to work.

d. write a statement of how the injury occurred.

Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewelry safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas.  Which form will you and your supervisor use to document this training?

a. AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.

b. AF IMT 483, Certificate of Competency.

c. AF Form 457, USAF Hazzard Report.

d. AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.

You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because

a. they can come undone and render you out of dress and appearance regulatoins

b. they can get caught in conveyor elts or moving parts and machinery

c. they get in the way when you are working at the computer.

d. your coworkers can easily yank on the as they walk by.

You are entering a warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area?

a. Cold-weather gear

b. Steal-toed boots

c. Reflective gear

d. Jewelry

You have finished downloading pallets on to the finger docks.  Which is the best way to exit the dock?

a. Jump of the edge.

b. Ride the rollers to the end with the pallets.

c. Use the ladder located at the end of the docks.

d. Step onto the K-loader and ask the driver to lower the back end so you can jump of a shorter distance.

You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting. It is important for you to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because.

a. new people can learn work habits by observing your performance.

b. your supervisor will embarrass you in front of your coworkers.

c. the K-loader driver doesn't like it.

d. it will increase your reputation.

Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what?

a. Detect, assess, and contribute to risks.

b. Detect, assess risks and enhance safety capabilities

c. Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities.

d. Detect and control risk while mitigating performance capabilities and enhancing combat capabilities.

Which form would you use to report hazard shtat connot be eliminated immediately?

a. DD Form 457, DOD Hazard Report.

b. AF IMT 457, USAF Hazzard Report.

c. DD Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.

d. AF IMT 1118, Notice of Hazzard.

The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location.  What does this warning me and and what should you do?

a. Lightning is occuring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

b. Lightning is predicted to occur within the next five minutes; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

c. Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations.

d. Lightning is predicted to occur within the next 30 minutes; continue working on the flight line until told to cease operations.

You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle.  What must you do before entering?

a. Stop and show the gate guard your line badge.

b. Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check.

c. Slow down and look both ways for oncoming aircraft.

d. Stop and collect IDs from all of your passengers to show the gate guard.

You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft. What must you do?

a. Leave the keys in the ignition and lock the vehicle; turn off the ignition; place it in neutral and chock the front tire of the front driver's side wheel, in front and behind.

b. Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse, and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind.

c. Leave the vehicle on and unlocked; the keys in the ignition; place it in park or revers and chock one rear wheel, in front, and behind.

d. Leave the vehicle unlocked; turn of the ignition; take the keys with you; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel.

You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction. You are not in the aircraft's path. What is your best course of action?

a. Exit the flight line area and return when the aircaft has safely blocked.

b. Flash your high beams at the aircraft to let the piolotk know your location.

c. Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range.

d. Turn your vehicle around so that you are facing away from the aircraft, turn the ignition off, and set the parking break until the aircraft is out of range.

You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower. What should you do?

a. clear the active runway

b. return to your starting point

c. Stop! your vehicle will not be moved.

d. General warning. Exercise extreme caution.

What is the focus of the Pollution Prevention program?

a. Disposing the waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem

b. Recycling and treating the waste Air Force personnel create before it ends up in landfils.

c. Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

d. Reducing the costs of recycling solid waste that Air Force personnel create in the course of their duties.

A solid waste is any discarded material,

a. including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like.

b. including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only which is acquired, treated, or considered inherently solid like.

c. including solids and liquids only, which is purchased, stored, abandoned, or considered inherently waste-like

d. including liquids and containerized gases only, which is stored, abandoned, or considered inherently solid-like.

What are the two elements of minimizing waste?

a. Prevention and control

b. Management and control

c. Reduction and Management

d. Prevention and Management

Pollution control consists of which three activities?

a. Recycling, treatment and disposal

b. Storage, acquisition, and recycling.

c. Prevention, purchase, and participation

d. Reduction, recycling, and disintegration

Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention?

a. It reduces impact on public health and the environment

b. It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations

c. It reduces costs, manpower and equipment requirements.

d. It boosts the Air Force's image as responsible members of society

What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?

a. Incinerate, scrub, or reduce hazardous waste products in accordance AFI's and local policies.

b. Neutralize, evaporate, or reduce hazardous waste producs in accordance with federal and state statutes.

c. Inspect, operate refuel and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TOs and other authorized guidence.

d. Reduce, reuse, recycle, and manage use of solid wastes, ensuring waste is dumped in any bodies of water, including storm drains.

You have knowledge of some NATO SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information?

a. For Official use only (FOUO)

b. NATO Confidential

c. TOP SECRET

d. SECRET

Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault and you have been asked to let a lighting technician in to fix the lighting.  He doesn't have the required "need-to-know, "but must have access to the room to properly complete his job.  What is your best course of action?

a. Let him in. He's got a job to do.

b. Check his for offical use only (FOUO) file.

c. Escort him into and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.

d. Verify his security clearance and make him sign a non-disclosure agreement (NDA).

An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain over night (RON) for repairs.  The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the best course of action?

a. Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft.

b. Have the armed courier stay on board until the aircrew returns

c. Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility.

d. Have the aircraft commander lock the aircraft and sign a release of liability letter.

Which one of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

a. An adversary with possession of a fake military identification card and knowledge of the base

b. Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C-5 and posting them on the Internet

c. Blending in with the local crowd while off-base in your deployed location

d. Varying your routine and driving routes to work.

Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?

a. Gold bullion

b. Human remains

c. Diplomatic clearance cargo

d. Defense Courier Service (DCS) material.

Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard and handle if it were classified?

a. Gold bullion

b. Registered Mail

c. Human Remains

d. Diplomatic clearance cargo.

*Physical capabilities

*Tasks being performed

*Level of demand

1 Identify the hazzard

2 Assess the RISK

3 Analyze the risk control measures

4 Make controlled decisions

5 Implement risk controls

6 Supervise and review

*Experience

*Common Sense

*Specific Risk Management tools

*Carlessness

*Haste

*Disreguard of existing Safety Standards

*Civilian drivers license

*AF Form 2293, USAF Motor Vehicle Operator Identification Card

*AF IMT 483, Certificate of Competency,

What are the speed limits of each vehicle or flight line area?   (5mph, 10mph, 15mph, 25mph, or designated by installation commander)

a. Taxiways and inactive runways _____

b. Aircraft Parking Ramp _____

c. Circle of safety _____

d. Special Purpose Vehicles _____

e. Vehicle Parking Area _____

a. designated by installation commander

b. 15 mph

c. 5 mph

d. 10 mph

e. 5 mph

Parked or Reverse

Unlocked

Chocked rear tire (2 chocks)

Keys in ignition

Tower signals - Explain the situation....

a. Steady Green Light

b. Steady Red Light

c. Flashing Red Light

d. Flashing White Light

e. Red and Green Light

a. Clear to cross

b. STOP! Vehicle will not be moved

c. Clear active runway

d. Return to starting point

e. General Warning : Exercise Extreme caution

Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?

a. Deployment

b. Sustainment

c. Employment

d. Redeployment

Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land, and sea transportation?

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

b. Military Sealift Command (MSC)

c. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)

Which command is not a component of the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)?

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

b. Military Sealift Command (MSC)

c. Miltary Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC)

d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)

Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

b. Mobility Airlift Command (MAC)

c. Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC)

d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC)

Which command is the US Transportation Command's (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services? 

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

b. Mobility Airlift Command (MAC)

c. Air Transportation Mobility Command (ATMC)

d. Air Deployment and Mobility Command (ADMC)

Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?

a. Wing Operations Center (WOC)

b. Wing Airlift Control Center (WACC)

c. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC)

d. Aerial Port Operations Center (APOC)

Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

a. Sustainment Mobility System (SMS)

b. National Air Mobility System (NAMS)

c. Mobility Traffic Management System (MTMS)

d. Global Deployment & Mobility System (GDMS)

Which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo passengers?

a. Drop zone

b. Aerial port

c. Airland field

d. Landing zone

Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?

a. Aerial Port of Inspection

b. Aerial Port of Mobility

c. Aerial Port of Debarkation

d. Aerial Port of Embarkation

Joint forces can be organized on which basis?

a. Symmetrical or logical

b. Geographical or logical

c. Symmetrical or functional

d. Geographical or functional

Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers?

a. C-5

b. C-17

c. KC-10

d. B-747

Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as airdrops and aeromedical evacuations?

a. C-5

b. C-17

c. KC-10

d. B-747

Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?

a. C-5

b. C-17

c. C-130

d. C-141

Which program is where United States commercial airlines augment Department of Defense's airlift capability in time of war or during a President-declared emergency?

a. Defense Transportation Program (DTP)

b. National Air Mobility Program (NAMP)

c. Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program

d. Operations and Maintenance (O&M) program

Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet activiation supports monor regional crises or small-scale contingencies?

a. Stage I, Committed Expansion

b. Stage II, Defense Airlift Emergency

c. Stage III, National Emergency

d. Stage IV, Global Expansion

Improperly constructed mission numbers...

a. duplicate the efforts of the organizations who fly the missions

b. interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems.

c. make it harder to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy the war fighter.

d. enable the services to double-bill the cargo's user based on weight and cube.

Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)?

a. Channel missions

b. Contingency missions

c. Air refueling mission (AR)

d. Special airlift mission (SAM)

The last three digits of a mission number represents the ...

a. geographical point where the missiom will turn around.

b. operational or tactical agency that has control of the mission

c. Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT.

d. air carrier that is operating the missiom and what the load consist of.

Intransit Visibility (ITV) provides commanders the

a. ability to connect and replicate

b. ability to enter data into feeder systems accurately

c. capability to interface with X-MAN, Logistics (LOGMOD), and MANPER-B systems.

d. capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission.

The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) allows users to ...

a. prepare freight warrants

b. prepare commercial bills of lading

c. create ailift schedules and mission numbers

d. process, manifest, and track passengers and cargo.

At a minimum, aerial port personnel should verify in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) the...

a. transportation account code, project code and mission number.

b. presence of bill of lading data, project code, and mission number.

c. presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code.

d. presence of document identifier codes, mission number and aerial port code.

Who has responsibilty to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

a. Truck drivers

b. Individual Units

c. Superintendents

d. Ramp supervisors

Which disk system is not used to import cargo or passenger info into GATES?

a. X-MAN.

b. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

c. Manpower and Personnel Module-Base (MANPER-B).

d. Deliverate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Radio frequency identifier (RFID) technology consists of which three parts?

a. Tag, interrogator, and data server

b. Tag, transponder, and data server

c. Tag interrogator, and optical memory card.

d. Transponder, optical memory card, and data server.

The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the...

a. capability is outdated and needs to be replaced by a more advanced capability

b. deploying unit replicates and provides HQ AMC ITV cell email ITV capability.

c. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place.

d. deploying unit requires more capability than DGATES provides or prefers to use another system.

You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a mobility movement and want to locate info about mobility movements.  In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look?

a. Part I

b. Part II

c. Part III

d. Part IV

You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible for Department of Defense (DOD) air travel. In which publication would you look?

a. DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility

b. DOD 4500.54-M Foreign Clearance Manual (FCM)

c. DTR, 4500.9-R, Defense Transportation Regulation

d. DOD 4515.13-R, Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR)

You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other.  In which publication would you look?

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101

b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)

c. Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101

d. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-204

A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment via tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this type of airlift.  Which chapter isn Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204 (I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment, would you go to find this information?

a. Chapter 1.

b. Chapter 2.

c. Chapter 3.

d. Chapter 4.

You are load planning cargo for a Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specifications to safely plan the load.  In which publicationseries would you look to find the info?

a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24-101

b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I)

c. Air Mobility Command Instruction (AMCI) 24-101

d. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-2

You are loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft and want to find info on specific procedures for loading the items.  Which section number of the IC-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains that info?

a. Section II

b. Section IV

c. Section V

d. Section VI

*Military Sealift Command (MSC)

*Surface Deployment and Distribution Comand (SDDC)

*Air Mobility Command (AMC)

*Intertheater - strategic (moving passengers and cargo over long distances)

*Intratheater (moving passengers and cargo within one geographical theater)

*Organic (specialized airlift and used by the unit that owns the aircraft).

Describe some characteristics of the C-5

# of pallets

# of passengers

peace time planning weight

36 Pallets

73 Passengers

150,000 lbs during peacetime operations

Describe some characteristics of the C-17 Globemaster III

# of Pallets

# of Passengers

Peacetime weight limit

11 pallets down center of aircraft in the Aerial delivery system (ADS) to accomodate 54 passengers.

or 18 pallets spun sideways and loaded side by side in the logistics rail system (LRS)

Peacetime weight is 90,000 lbs.

Describe some characteristics of the C-130 Hercules

# of Pallets

# of Passengers

Peacetime weight

A special characteristic?

6 Pallets

90 Passengers

25,000 lbs during peacetime operations

*It can land on rough, dirt strips and much of its equipment is removealbe allowing many flexible alternatives.  (Also is  used for airlift, airdrops, aeromedical evacuations, weather reconnaissance, aerial spray, and fire fighting.)

Characteristics of the KC-10 Extender

# of pallets

# of passengers

# primary role

Peacetime weight limit

22 Pallets

75 Passengers

Refueling is primary role

80,000 lbs Peacetime weight

What publication contains these Parts...

Part I, Passenger movement

Part II, Cargo Movement

Part III, Mobility

Part IV, Personal Property

Part V, Customs and Border Clearance Policies and Procedures

Part VI, Management and Control of Intermodal Containers and System 463L Equipment

Part VII, Human Remains Movement

How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?

a. 3,500 lbs

b. 2,200 lbs

c. 1,500 lbs

d. 500 lbs

Which parachute is the largest?

a. G-11

b. G-12

c. G-13

d. Extraction

For what type of drop is the Type V platform used?

a. Freedrop

b. High-Velocity drop

c. Low-Velocity drop

d. all three types of air drops

What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?

a. 300 lbs

b. 400 lbs

c. 500 lbs

d. 1,000 lbs

Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones, because they usually consist of large complex loads?

a. Freedrop

b. Gravity method

c. Low-Velocity drop

d. High-Velocity drop

Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter storm?

a. High-Velocity drop.

b. Freedrop

c. Low-Velocity drop

d. Gravity Method

Which hazardous materials certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)?

a. Hazardous materials handler and inspector

b. Hazardous materials inspector and preparer.

c. Hazardous materials handler and technical specialist.

d. Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist.

Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by

a. an "*"

b. an "X"

c. a check mark

d. leaving the block blank

To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 not go?

a. The deploying unit representitive

b. Retained by the mobility force for inclusion in the station file

c. The troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest

d. The aircraft loadmaster with the cargo manifest and other documentation.

Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until...

a. all cargo for the chalk is present and available

b. the first piece of cargo arrives in the call forward area.

c. the first deployed schedule of events (DSOE) is published

d. the Arrival/Departure Airfield Control Group (A/DACG) directs them.

In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying units have sole responsibility?

a. Marshalling area

b. Call forward area

c. Alert holding area

d. Ready line/loading ram area

Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage?

a. Passenger Control Unit (PCU)

b. Passenger Control Center (PCC)

c. Passenger Operations Function (POF)

d. Passenger Deployment Function (PDF)

Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments?

a. Deployment Control Center (DCC)

b. Transportation Control Unit (TCU)

c. Control Deployment Function (CDF)

d. Deployment Vehicle Operations (DVO)

Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information?

a. Logistics Module (LOGMOD)

b. Joint Operations Planning & Execution System (JOPES)

c. Global Air Transportation & Execution System (GATES)

d. Deliverate Crisis Action Planning & Execution System (DCAPES)

Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

a. Small scale contingencies

b. Training events and competitions

c. Joint, Air Force, and Unit exercises

d. Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) taskings

Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (operation plans) and certain CONPLANs (concept plans)?

a. WMP-2, Plans and Listing Summary

b. WMP-3, Combat and Support Forces

c. WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity

d. WMP-5, AF Industrial Mobilization Planning

The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is...

a. the process within unit type codes (UTC) required to activate deployment work centers.

b. a situation that involves military forces in response to natural and man-made disasters, terrorists, or foreign military operations.

c. a situation that involves a significant threat to the US, its territories, citizens, military forces, possessions, or vital interests

d. the electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployments in phases

Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop...

a. joint inspection standards and Global Air Mobility Support System (GAMSS) taskings

b. operational plans (OPLANs) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)

c. installation deployment officers (IDOs) and air expiditionary force (AEF) tempo bands.

d. joint planning and execution community (JPEC) regulations and deployment work centers.

*Freedrop

*High-velocity drop

*Low-velocity drop

*Door Load

*Gravity

*Extraction

*A-7A Sling

*A-21 Cargo bag

*A-22 Cargo Bag

When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the waste tank is full?

a. Open the tank and look inside

b. Look through the sight window

c. Wait until the flow meter zeros out

d. Look at the guage in the control panel

On the AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items out on mission aircraft?

a. AF IMT 129, Tally In/Out

b. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist

c. AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit/Inventory List

d. AF 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer Receipt

You have been tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5. Which form should you use?

a. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist

b. AF IMT 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

c. AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record

d. AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet/Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist

You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what actions must you take?

a. Turn it in to the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces

b. Turn it into the Customer Service Branch (CSB) so it can be shipped to the passenger

c. Drive the article to the passenger, who will be waiting at the baggage pick-up conveyor

d. Annotate the article in the statement block of the AF IMT 4128 adn describe the action you took to recover it.

Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?

a. Wipe down the oven racks and oven interior and ensure the oven is operational

b. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational

c. Take the oven racks to Fleet supply for cleaning and use 5% sodium hypochlorite solution to wipe down the interior

d. Take the oven racks to the flight kitchen for cleaning and use a 5% sodium hypoclorite solution to wipe down the interior

You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft. How must they be when you pick them up so they will stay clean?

a. Wiped down with a 5% sodium hypoclorite solution

b. Wiped down with spray cleaner and a soft cloth

c. The spouts will be bundled in lots of five

d. The spouts will be covered in plastic

A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is the latest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight?

a. 0600

b. 0645

c. 0700

d. 0715

What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?

a. Notify the dispatcher of your start time

b. Verify you have every item listed on the form

c. Call in the meal numbers to the passenger terminal

d. Help the aircrew member store the meals in the proper storage areas

You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out at 0800.  Within what timeframe are aircrews required to pick up their own meals?

a. 0650

b. 0700

c. 0710

d. 0720

You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5.  Who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?

a. The air crew members only

b. Fleet Service and maintenance personnel

c. The aircrew members and maintenance personnel

d. The aircrew members and Fleet Service Personnel

You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan, that has unused meals onboard.  What must you do with these meals?

a. Turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516 or AF IMT 129

b. After USDA inspection and approval, they are free to consume during one of your breaks

c. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility

d. After US Department of Agriculture (USDA) inspection and approval, turn them into the flight kitchen using the AF IMT 3516, or AF IMT 129

When servicing an aircraft with portable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until...

a. the flow meter reads 11 gallons

b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

c. water reaches the requested capacity or 11 gallons, whichever comes first

d. the flow meter zeroes out or until water discharges from the overflow fitting

When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until...

a. the flwo meter reads 11 gallons

b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity

c. the guage indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, which ever comes first

d. the flow meter zeroes out or until the water discharges from the overflow fitting

You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST); the doughtnut seal was faulty, and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft.  You were wearing all required PPE.  What actions should you take?

a. Wash immediately and change clothes

b. Change clothes only; your PPE protected you

c. Call the ambulance to treat you for contamination

d. Change clothes and discontinue latrine service until the doughnut gets fixed

When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as "latrine serviced by," you should include the initals of the...

a. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times

b. person recording the information, the Julian date, and the start and complete times.

c. person who serviced the latrine and the start and complete times

d. dispatcher and the start and complete times

As a Fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet.  Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?

a. An aircrew member

b. The air terminal manager

c. A flight kitchen representative

d. The fleet service shift supervisor