(001) Keeping your hands, feet, and clothing as dry as possible when working on electrical equipment is a sound

a. mental fitness precaution.
b. preoperational practice.
c. housekeeping practice.
d. safety precaution.

(001) Before you connect alligator clips to any circuit, be sure to

a. turn off the circuit power.
b. increase the circuit resistance.
c. decrease the circuit resistance.
d. turn the circuit power to medium range.

(001) What is the standard practice when you must work on "hot" circuits?

a. Exercise extreme caution.
b. Be familiar with the danger areas on the equipment.
c. Operators and technicians are familiar with power switch locations.
d. All of the above conditions are met.

(001) What precautions should you exercise when making a voltage or current measurement?

a. Hold the meter in both hands and attach the meter leads while the power is applied.
b. Stand on a rubber mat; attach the meter leads while the power is applied; read the meter.
c. Place the meter in a safe position with the meter leads attached; stand at a safe distance before you apply power to read the meter.
d. Stand on a rubber mat; place the meter in a safe position with the meter leads attached before applying power; make sure a qualified saftey observer is present.

(001) Where the most likely place to find accidental groundings in your lab?

a. The printing area.
b. The processing area.
c. The download section.
d. Anywhere there is water.

(001) What is the best method for removing excess solder from a soldering iron?

a. Tap lightly on holder.
b. Lightly file excess off.
c. Quick flick toward floor.
d. use a damp sponge or cleaning pad.

(002) What is the maximum air pressure that you can use for cleaning?

a. 5 pounds per square inch (psi)
b. 15 psi.
c. 30 psi.
d. 60 psi.

(002) Which is a proper procedure for storing gas cylinders inside a facility?

a. Only industrial oxygen cylinders may be stored with acetylene gas cylinders.
b. Do not store oxygen cylinders in the same location with cylinders of fuel gases.
c. Environmental protection of gas cylinders is not required when stored in open areas.
d. Oxygen cylinders may be stored near gas cylinders as long as the are properly labeled.

(002) Which procedure would you consider to be an improper way of handling gas cylinders?

a. Refer to gases by name rather than as a "gas."
b. Do not tamper with safety devices in valves or cylinders.
c. Allow only trained personnel to use or work with compressed gases.
d. Ensure oxygen cylinders are properly lubricated with oil and grease so pressure regulators do not seize or bind.

(003) On an intrusion detection system (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
b. Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection.
c. Potential for intruder to bypass the system.
d. Possibility of equipment failures.

003) The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to

a. provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time hours.
b. identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone.
c. facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
d. present a means of deterring unauthorized entry.

(004) What must the primary and remote annunciators be capable of in an intrusion detection systems (IDS)?

a. Provide dual line of detection.
b. Operate independently of one another.
c. Backup power for one another.
d. present a means of deterring unauthorized entry.

(004) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

a. gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate.
b. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
c. personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse.
d. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

(004) On a sensor system the annunciation display must be able to differentiate between

a. alarms and tampers.
b. alarms and equipment failures.
c. tampers and nuisance alarms.
d. failed self test and power loss.

(005) Which is not a factor in determining security system requirements?

a. Possible threat to be encountered.
b. Potential manpower savings.
c. Value of priority resources.
d. Level of risk the commander can accept.

(005) What protection level is assigned to resources that the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise of which could be expected to cause great harm to the strategic capability of the United States?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4

(005) What priority level is assigned to resources that are contained in control areas with the owner/user having primary responsibility for security?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

(006) Who is in charge of overlooking the personal riliability program (PRP) for a unit?

a. Squadron PRP monitor.
b. Squadron Commander.
c. Individual on PRP.
d. Individuals supervisor.

(006) Who is responsible for ensuring continuous eligibility of personnel assigned to the personal reliability program (PRP)?

a. Squadron PRP monitor.
b. Squadron commander.
c. Individual on PRP.
d. Individuals supervisor.

(006) Under the two person concept, what must the two individuals be capable of detecting?

a. Unauthorized access to the resources.
b. Incorrect or unauthorized procedures.
c. Reliabillity of the security system.
d. Malfunction of the security system.

(007) Who determines what type of intrusion detection system (IDS) is to be installed at Air Force installations?

a. Electronic Security Command (ESC)
b. Major command (MAJCOM) responsible for base.
c. HQ Security Command.
d. Wing commander.

(007) Which of the following is not a mission area to take into consideration for selecting an intrusion detection system (IDS)?

a. Safeguarding priority resources.
b. Protecting base and mission assets.
c. Reducing security personnel requirements.
d. Performing air base ground defense.

(007) Which program takes measures to nullify or reduce the effectiveness of enemy attacks on, or sabotage of, air bases to ensure they retain the capability and freedom to perform the assigned mission?

a. Safeguarding priority resources.
b. Protecting base and mission assets.
c. Air base physical security.
d. Air base ground defense.

(008) A fully operational intrusion detection system (IDS) provides detection, assessment, command and control, delay/denial, and

a. automatic security dispatching.
b. real-time monitoring.
c. continual self-testing.
d. entry control.

(008) Detection is accomplished through the use of all of the following sensors except

a. individual resource.
b. infrared cameras.
c. site boundary.
d. facility.

(008) What functional capability on an intrusion detection system allows the security forces to monitor the alarm indicators from a remote location?

a. Detection.
b. Assessment.
c. Delay/denial.
d. Command and control.

(008) On an intrusion detection system, what functional capability encompasses the data transmission elements of the security system?

a. Detection.
b. Assessment.
c. Delay/denial.
d. Command and control.

(009) If an intruder is moving toward a microwave sensor, what happens to the frequency of the reflected signal?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. 90 degrees phase shift.
d. Remains constant.

(009) What condition would you get if a microwave sensor senses a difference between the transmitted and received frequencies?

a. 90 degrees frequency shift.
b. 180 degrees frequency shift.
c. No alarm output.
d. Alarm output.

(010) How would a passive infrared sensor view a cup of hot coffee sitting on a frosty window sill?

a. Coffee red; window blue.
b. Coffee blue; window red.
c. Entire area purple.
d. Entire area blue.

(011) What combination of sensors do dual-phenomenology sensors use?

a. Passive infrared and microwave.
b. Microwave and thermal imaging.
c. Doppler shift and balanced magnetic.
d. Active infrared and balance magnetic

(011) What is an advantage of using dual-phenomenology sensors?

a. More sensitive to false alarms.
b. Less sensitve to false alarms.
c. Lower cost to manufacture.
d. Higher detection capability.

(012) How much movement is required for a balanced magnetic switch (BMS) to go into alarm?

a. 1 inch.
b. 1 1/4 inches.
c. 1 1/2 inches.
d. 2 inches.

(012) What impact does removing the switch cover of a balanced magnetic switch (BMS) have?

a. Close switch contacts and a tamper alarm.
b. Open switch contacts and causes a sensor alarms.
c. Close switch contacts and causes a sensor alarm.
d. Open switch contacts and causes tamper alarm.

(013) What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?

a. Small annunciator system (SMAS).
b. Standard annunciator system (STAS).
c. Security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART).
d. Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).

(013) What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?

a. Tamper interface unit.
b. Line termination unit (LTU).
c. End-of-line (EOL) module.
d. EOL resistor.

(013) What is the tamper frequency of the Advisor VIII control unit?

a. 23.6 kHz.
b. 26.3 kHz
c. 3 kHz.
d. 5 kHz.

(013) What is the range of the alternating current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?

a. 1.5 to 10 seconds.
b. 1.5 to 15 seconds.
c. 3 to 10 seconds.
d. 5 to 15 seconds.

(013) How many selectable frequencies are obtainable with the SD80DC microwave sensors?

a. 5.
b. 8.
c. 10.
d. 12.

(013) The SDI-76 employs a microwave range control that is adjustable from

a. 15-50 feet.
b. 15-75 feet.
c. 25-75 feet.
d. 30-90 feet.

(014) What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

a. Alternating Current (AC).
b. Direct Current (DC).
c. Digital.
d. Analog.

(014) Normally how many meters does a standard AF E_Flex II monitor?

a. 100.
b. 150.
c. 200.
d. 300.

(014) Which of the following is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?

a. Alarm duration.
b. Number of cuts.
c. Cable sensitivity.
d. Sector reporting priority.

(014) What is the resistance of the E-Flex line termination unit (LTU)?

a. 0.1 megohm.
b. 1 megohm.
c. 10 megohms.
d. Depends on the location.

(014) How many sensor switches does a taut wire system (TWS) in the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS) configuration contain?

a. 5.
b. 6.
c. 10.
d. 12.

(014) What is the maximum length of the Y taut wire sensor (YTWS)?

a. 150 feet.
b. 200 feet.
c. 328 feet.
d. 425 feet.

(014) On a 100-foot Y taut wire sensor (TYWS), how far apart are the slider arms placed?

a. 10 feet.
b. 12.5 feet.
c. 20 feet.
d. 25 feet.

(014) What occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

a. No alarm.
b. Tamper alarm.
c. Intruder alarm.
d. Equipment fault alarm.

(014) In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut wire sensor (VTWS) be expected to remain operational?

a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 8.
d. 10.

(014) Under ideal conditions, what is the maximum distance for infrared (IR) perimeter detection sensors?

a. 50 meters.
b. 75 meters.
c. 100 meters.
d. 150 meters.

(014) What is the beam width at the widest portion of the IR perimeter detection sensor?

a. 0.5 inch.
b. 1 inch.
c. 2 inches.
d. 4 inches.

(014) At what distance does the detection pattern of the IR perimeter detection sensor transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?

a. 100 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.
b. 150 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver.
c. 100 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
d. 150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.

(014) What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?

a. 100 Hz.
b. 800 Hz.
c. 1,000 Hz.
d. 1,200 Hz.

(014) What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?

a. Beam break.
b. Signal fade margin.
c. Multipath reflection.
d. Multipath amplification.

(014) When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control using a multimeter?

a. Lowest possible.
b. Highest possible.
c. Equal to the phase lock loop (PLL).
d. Midpoint.

(015) Which of the factors listed below is not a factor in determining the depth of ported coaxial cables?

a. Soil.
b. Asphalt.
C. Weather.
d. Concrete.

(015) What is the purpose of varying the size of the ports on ported coaxial cable systems?

a. Make some areas more sensitive than others.
b. Vary signal strength when changing from soil to asphalt.
c. Keep signal strength constant along the entire length of cable.
d. Maintain constant signal strength when changing from asphalt to soil.

(015) What unit of the PCCS processes analog and digital data relating to an intruder?

a. Line amplifier unit.
b. Line processing unit.
c. Line termination unit.
d. Processor detector ranging unit.

(015) The line termination unit of the PCCS terminates the cable in characteristic impendeance of

a. 50 ohms.
b. 75 ohms.
c. 150 ohms.
d. 300 ohms.

(015) A PCCS range cell is equal to

a. 25 feet
b. 33.3 meters.
c. 50 yards.
d. 66.6 miles.

(015) Into how many cell time frames can a 1600-meter PCCS subsystem be divided?

a. 32.
b. 48.
c. 64.
d. 128.

(015) Of the 48 windows into which the PCCS can be divided, how man zones can be set up and how many of them are reporting zones?

a. 24 zones; 20 reporting.
b. 20 zones; 20 reporting.
c. 20 zones; 16 reporting.
d. 16 zones; 10 reporting.

(015) In a typical AF installation, how many meters is the typical perimeter zone?

a. 75.
b. 100.
c. 150.
d. 175.

(016) What is the maximum number of sensor modules needed in order to use the 48 volts direct current network field power module?

a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.

(016) On a Perimitrax system, what component generates an equipment failure condition if a sensor module does not respond after a set number of poll attempts?

a. Central controller.
b. Output relay card.
c. Network controller
d. Local interface assembly.

(016) On a Perimitrax system, what alarm is generated when a non-fatal problem is detected with the equipment?

a. Tamper alarm.
b. Notification alarm.
c. Equipment fail alarm.
d. Equipment report alarm.

(016) On a Perimitrax system, which alarms have the highest priority?

a. Sensor.
b. Nuisance.
c. Equipment.
d. Notification

(016) On a Perimitrax system, what is the most common problem leading to increased nuisance alarms?

a. Wind.
b. Rainfall.
c. External Radio Frequency.
d. Incorrect threshold setting.

(017) If a sensor fails to respond to a sensor test, what type of alarm does the small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS) generate?

a. Hardware failure.
b. Software failure.
c. Failed sensor.
d. Line fault.

(018) How many output connectors are there on the coder-multiplexer, sensor data (CMSD) that provide data to the local and central configurations?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

(018) Which unit in the AN/GSS-29 checks the 29-bit message's preamble and parity bits for noise in a single channel configuration?

a. Decoder, sensor data. (DSD)
b. Alarm monitor, operator status. (AMOS)
c. Alarm monitor, decoder status (AMDS).
d. Receiver, digital data-1 (RDD-1).

(018) Which unit of the AN/GSS-29 decodes a 16-bit non-return-to-zero message?

a. Decoder, sensor data.
b. Coder-multiplexer, sensor data.
c. Receiver, digital data-1.
d. Receiver, digital data-4.

(018) Which unit of the AN/Gss-29 contains the ACCESS/SECURE switches?

a. Control-indicator, sensor data display (CISDD).
b. Alarm monitor, operator Status (AMOS)
c. Alarm monitor, decoder status (AMDS)
d. Decoder, sensor data (DSD)

(018) What is the condition of a light emitting diode (LED) on the display map, sensor display (DMSD) when an alarm has not been acknowledged?

a. 2 hertz flash
b. 8 Hz flash
c. ON steady
d. OFF

(018) How long can the battery charger power supply power the AN/GSS-29 if the battery charger fails?

a. 8 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 2 hours

(018) An under-voltage condition exists in the inverter when the batteries on the AN/GSS-29 reach a level of

a. 98.7 volts direct current (VDC)
b. 84 VDC
c. 74 VDC
d. 70 VDC

(019) Where is the security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART) information concerning particular alarm points displayed?

a. Vgraph
b. Closed circuit television (CCTV)
c. Access control system (ACSYS)
d. Security archive workstation or security administration workstation (SAW)

(019) Where would the security monitoring and reporting terminal's (SMART) operational state and operator's name be found?

a. Description line
b. Status line.
c. Action line.
d. Data line.

(019) What window is automatically activated anytime a significan event change happens in the security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART)?

a. Status
b. Action
c. Attention
d. Configuration

(019) What security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART) window is available only to authorized personnel?

a. Configuration
b. Attention
c. Action
d. Detail

(019) When the security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART) is configured for two-operator concurrence, what options are available to the second operator if an alarm is accessed by the first operator?

a. Continue, confirm, or deny.
b. Continue, delay, or access.
c. Confirm, access, or defer.
d. Confirm, deny, or defer.

(019) What function key allows the security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART) operator to access the Action list window?

a. F7
b. F10
c. Shift + F7
d. Shift + F10

(020) How many vaults can the weapons storage security system (WS3) monitors?

a. 48
b. 52
c. 64
d. 79

(020) How are the tamper switches in the shelter control panel and the floor box assembly wired in a weapons storage security system (WS3)?

a. Independently
b. Redundantly
c. Parallel
d. Series

(020) How many alarms can be displayed simultaneously on the touch screen terminal of the weapons storage security system (WS3) system?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

(021) What function do the internal relay closures in a card reader typically used for?

a. Control locks.
b. Detect lock status.
c. Display status message.
d. Read magnetic stripe on badge.

(021) Which personnel identification device provides positive identification through measurement of biometrics?

a. Cardreader personal identification number pad.
b. Cardreader prompt.
c. Hand geometry unit.
d. X-ray machine.

(021) Which panel configuration monitors sensors and reports any alarm conditions detected?

a. Security panel.
b. Distribution panel.
c. Portal Control Panel
d. Intrusion Detection Panel

(021) What device on the advanced entry control system (AECS) allows the operator to install, review, modify, and broadcast databases created to all other workstations?

a. Enrollment operator workstation.
b. System administrator terminal
c. Enrollment master station.
d. Security workstation.

(021) Which peripheral device provides manual control of the video switch in an advanced entry control system (AECS) video surveillance system?

a. Transceiver
b. Interconnect panel
c. External keyboard
d. Interconnect substation

(021) How many hours of power must the uninterrupted power supply in an advanced entry control system (AECS) system provide in the event that the station power is lost?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10

(022) A properly mounted camera extends no more than how many feet beyond the outside of the fence line?

a. 2 feet
b. 2.5 feet
c. 3 feet
d. 3.5 feet

023) Which unit isolates, amplifies, and equalizes incoming video signals?

a. Amplifier unit, video signal (AUVS).
b. Control-Monitor Unit (CMU)
c. Control-indicator assembly (CIA)
d. Monitor Television (MTV)

(023) On a typical AN/GXS-2 system with a single fence, how far out should the field of view be?

a. 15 feet
b. 25 feet
c. 30 feet
d. 35 feet

(023) By upgrading to the AN/GXS-3 system, what will your camera capability be?

a. 80
b. 100
c. 120
d. 150

(023) How many simultaneous alarms can be displayed by the AN/GXS-3?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 9