Term
Con Law
What are three (3) requirements for valid regulation of truthful commercial speech?
EBP |
|
Definition
The regulation will be upheld only if it:
- serves a substantial government interest;
- directly advances that interest; and
- is narrowly tailored to serve that interest. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
State provides full prescription drug coverage to all citizens but does not cover a drug only taken by women. Is this gender based discrimination?
EBP |
|
Definition
No, the fact that the restriction applies to a drug only prescribed to women does not establish gender based discrimination. Geduldig v. Aiellou (SCOTUS 1974) |
|
|
Term
Con Law
Are legitimacy classifications suspect, quasi-suspect, or neither?
What is the standard of review?
EBP |
|
Definition
Legitimacy is a quasi-suspect classification.
Intermediate scrutiny applies: must be substantially related to an important government interest. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
Can zoning be used to curtail adult entertainment establishments without violating the First Amendment?
EBP |
|
Definition
Yes. Zoning may limit the size and location of adult establishments if the regulation is designed to reduce the secondary effects of such businesses (e.g., rise in crime rates, drop in property values, etc.).
However, regulations may not ban such establishments altogether. |
|
|
Term
Property
Every lease has an implied covenant of quiet enjoyment. What are three (3) ways this covenant may be breached?
EBP |
|
Definition
1. Actual Eviction
2. Partial Eviction
3. Constructive Eviction |
|
|
Term
Property
What type of leases (residential, commercial, or both) are subject to an implied warranty of habitability?
In the event of breach, what may the tenant do? [Hint: 4 things] |
|
Definition
Residential leases only.
In the event of breach, tenant may:
1. terminate the lease
2. make repairs and offset the cost against rent
3. abate the rent to an amount equal to the fair rental value in view of the defects
4. remain in possession, pay full rent, and sue for damages |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "contract price" damages.
|
|
Definition
Contract price damages are a sellers remedy under Article 2.
Contract price damages equal the contract price, if the seller is not able to resell the goods. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
What type of writings are involved when dealing with the crime of forgery?
EBP |
|
Definition
Any writing that has apparent legal significance is a potential subject of forgery. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
When will a liquidated damages clause be upheld?
EBP |
|
Definition
Liquidated damages clauses will be upheld if:
- the damages were difficult to estimate in advance; and
- are a reasonable forecast of probable damages; and
- they do not operate as a penalty. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What is the exception to the general notion that Article 2 will fill most gaps with reasonable terms?
EBP |
|
Definition
Quantity: Article 2 will fill most gaps with reasonable terms but will not supply a quantity. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
When will an advertisement constitute an offer?
EBP |
|
Definition
When the ad specifies both:
- a quantity term; and
- who can accept it. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
How does false pretenses differ from larceny by trick?
EBP |
|
Definition
False pretenses differs from larceny by trick in what is obtained.
If the defendant obtains only possession, the offense is larceny by trick.
If the defendant obtains title, the offense of false pretenses has been committed. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What form of liquidated damages clause do courts prefer?
EBP |
|
Definition
Graduated liquidated damages clauses. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Define "admission by party opponent". |
|
Definition
Statement or act that amounts to a prior acknowledgement by one of the parties of one of the relevant facts.
- Not hearsay under the FRE;
- Need not be against declarant's interest at the time it was made;
- May be in the form of an opinion;
- Personal knowledge is not required; and
- May be predicated on hearsay. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
What is the test used in Establishment Clause cases not involving a sect preference? (e.g., state gives $1,000 to fund a sculpture garden containing religious and secular works of art)
EBP |
|
Definition
The action is valid under the Establishment Clause if:
- it has a secular purpose;
- its primary effect neither advances nor inhibits religion; and
- it does not involve excessive government entanglement with religion |
|
|
Term
*Criminal Law*
Define the mental state of "specific intent".
Is it a common law or MPC mental state?
EBP |
|
Definition
When the crime requires not just the desire to act, but also the desire to achieve a specific result.
This is a common law mental state. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
What are the eleven (11) specific intent crimes?
EBP |
|
Definition
1. Assault
2. 1st Degree Premeditated Murder
3. Larceny
4. Embezzlement
5. False Pretenses
6. Robbery
7. Forgery
8. Burglary
9. Solicitation
10. Conspiracy
11. Attempt.
|
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
Does solicitation merge into the completed crime?
EBP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
Defendant decides to burn down A's house. He pours gasoline on B's porch mistakenly believing it is A's. Police are able to stop him right before he drops the match on the gas. On charge of attempted arson, what result?
EBP |
|
Definition
Convicted. It is irrelevant that Defendant had the wrong house.
An attempt has two elements: (1) the specific intent to commit the target crime [here D intended to burn down a house, which is the crime of arson], and (2) an overt act in furtherance of the crime [here he poured gasoline on the porch].
Thus, both elements are met and Defendant should be convicted of attempted arson. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
How do you interpret a statute that states a culpable state of mind but does not say to which element of the offense it applies?
EBP |
|
Definition
Apply it to every material element of the offense.
Explanation: when a statute establishes a culpable state of mind without indicating to which material element(s) of the offense it is to apply, the statute will be interpreted as requiring that state of mind for every material element of the offense (e.g., even dollar amounts!) |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "lost profit" damages.
Is it a form of seller's or buyer's damages?
EBP |
|
Definition
Lost profit damages = lost profit, if seller is a lost volume dealer.
It is a form of seller's damages under Article 2. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Does the statement against interest hearsay exception require the declarant to be unavailable to testify?
EBP |
|
Definition
Yes. A statement against interest is admissible, even if hearsay, only if the declarant is unavailable to testify.
Remember: for EXCEPTIONS the correct answer will say "hearsay but admissible." |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "market damages" as applied to sellers.
EBP |
|
Definition
Under Article 2, market damages equal:
contract price (-) market price, if seller does not resell in good faith or does not resell at all. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "loss in value" damages.
Are they a form of seller's or buyer's damages?
EBP |
|
Definition
value as promised (-) value delivered, if buyer keeps non-conforming goods.
Loss in value is a form of buyer's damages under Article 2. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What are "incidental damages" and who is entitled to them (seller, buyer, or both)?
EBP |
|
Definition
Incidental damages are:
- cost of transporting or caring for goods after breach; and
- costs associated with arranging a substitute transaction.
Available to both the buyer and seller. |
|
|
Term
*Criminal Law*
Define the mental state of "malice", and state whether it is a common law or MPC mental state.
EBP |
|
Definition
Malice: when a Defendant acts intentionally or with reckless disregard of an obvious or known risk.
This is a common law mental state. |
|
|
Term
Agency
When will a principal be liable for the torts committed by an agent?
CICW |
|
Definition
Two-Part Test:
(1) Principal-Agent relationship exists; and
(2) tort committed by agent within scope of that relationship.
Note: To determine whether principal-agent relationship exists, remember the ABC's....Assent, Benefit, and Control. |
|
|
Term
Property
Is there a right of survivorship in a tenancy in common?
StudySmart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Agency
Define the ABC's of principal-agent relationship existance for vicarious liability purposes.
CICW |
|
Definition
Assent: an informal agreement between the principal (who has capacity) and the agent.
Benefit: agent's conduct must be for the principal's benefit.
Control: principal must have the right to control the agent by having power to supervise performance. |
|
|
Term
Agency
What are the three (3) factors used to determine whether act was within scope of principal-agent relationship?
CICW |
|
Definition
Was conduct "of the kind" agent was hired to perform?
Did the tort occur "on the job"? (i.e., frolic v. detour)
Did the agent intend to benefit the principal? |
|
|
Term
Agency
What is the difference between a "frolic" and a "detour"?
CICW |
|
Definition
Frolic: a new and independent journey (result: outside scope of agency relationship).
Detour: a mere departure from an assigned task (result: within scope of agency). |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What are the four (4) exceptions to the mailbox rule?
|
|
Definition
(1) Offer provides otherwise (i.e., offer states that acceptance is only valid upon receipt)
(2) Irrevocable offer.
(3) Offeror relies on overtaking rejection.
(4) Rejection sent first. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
Under rational basis standard, who has the burden of proof and what must they show?
EBP |
|
Definition
The party challenging the constitutionality of the law has the burden of proof.
They must show that the law has no rational basis. The statute will be presumed constitutional unless a clear showing of arbitrariness and irrationality is made. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
What is the standard for age based discrimination?
EBP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Contracts
As between merchants, when do additional terms proposed by the offeree in an acceptance become part of the contract?
EBP |
|
Definition
Between merchants, additional terms in the offeree's acceptance automatically become part of the contract, unless:
- they materially alter the original terms of the offer (e.g., they change the party's risk or remedies available); or
- the offer expressly limits acceptance to the terms of the offer; or
- offeror objects to additions within a reasonable time. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
A and B conspire to commit a crime and then see it through. What result?
EBP |
|
Definition
Majority Rule: conspirators may be convicted of both the criminal conspiracy and the crime they committed pursuant to the conspiracy.
In other words, conspiracy does not merge. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
How is "promissory estoppel" characterized under the Second Restatement?
EBP |
|
Definition
RST (2nd): a promise is enforceable (but limited as justice requires) if the promisor should reasonably expect to induce action or forbearance, and such action or forbearance is in fact induced. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
How is "merchant" defined under Article 2?
EBP |
|
Definition
Under Article 2, a "merchant" is:
- one who deals in the type of goods involved in the transaction; or
- who through his occupation has specialized knowledge of the business practices involved. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Offeror dies after offeree begins performance on a unilateral contract. What result?
EBP |
|
Definition
An offer will not be terminated by the death of the offeror if the offeror's power to revoke is limited by law. In a valid unilateral contract where the offeree has begun performance, the offeror's power to revoke is limited by law. Thus, the offer is irrevocable during the time offeree was given to complete performance. |
|
|
Term
Agency
Two ways a person can be disqualified from being an agent?
CA |
|
Definition
1. Representing both parties (unless both fully advised and agree to dual representation).
2. Not licensed. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
How much can plaintiff recover under quasi-contract, where suing on the contract is barred by the statute of frauds?
EBP |
|
Definition
Plaintiff can recover the reasonable value of the benefit conferred; not the contract price, which operates as a ceiling on recovery. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
When is indirect revocation effective to terminate an offer?
EBP |
|
Definition
Indirect revocation is effective to terminate an offer where:
- the offeror engages in conduct that indicates he's changed his mind; and
- the offeree is aware of the conduct. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What happens when an offer does not contain a price term?
EBP |
|
Definition
Depends on the applicable law.
Common Law: too indefinite to constitute a valid offer
Article 2: OK, Article 2 will fill the gap with a reasonable price. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
City ordinance is challenged which provides that all viewpoints must be allowed to participate in parades organized by private organizations. What result?
EBP |
|
Definition
Violates First Amendment rights of parade organizers.
Explanation: The First Amendment right to freedom of speech includes the right to refrain from speaking or endorsing beliefs with which one does not agree. In keeping with this principal, the SCOTUS has held that government may not require private parade organizers to include in their parade other groups that have messages with which the organizers disagree. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What happens when an acceptance varies the terms of the offer?
EBP |
|
Definition
Common Law: it operates as a rejection. "Mirror Image Rule"
Article 2: does not prevent acceptance. (Policy: to facilitate contract formation). |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "market damages" as applied to buyers.
EBP |
|
Definition
Market damages are a type of buyer's damages under Article 2.
market price (-) contract price, if buyer doesn't cover in good faith or doesn't cover at all. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
What is the standard for "relevance"?
EBP |
|
Definition
FRE 401: relevant evidence is evidence having any tendency to make the existence of a consequential fact more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What are the four types of seller's damages under Article 2?
EBP |
|
Definition
1. Resale damages [usual measure]
2. Market damages
3. Lost profit
4. Contract price |
|
|
Term
Con Law
What forms of commercial speech may be burdened?
EBP |
|
Definition
Commercial speech that is:
- proposing unlawful activity; or
- misleading or fraudulent |
|
|
Term
Con Law
What is the standard fo regulations restricting pre-viability abortions?
EBP |
|
Definition
They will be invalidated if they constitute an "undue burden" on a woman's right to have an abortion. Planned Parenthood of Southeastern Pennsylvania v. Casey (SCOTUS 1992) |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
Give four (4) examples of general intent crimes?
EBP |
|
Definition
Battery
Rape
Kidnapping
False Imprisonment |
|
|
Term
Property
What are the only four (4) categories of negative easements?
EBP |
|
Definition
LASS
Light
Air
Support
Stream water from an artificial flow |
|
|
Term
Property
What are the methods for creating an affirmative easement?
EBP |
|
Definition
PING
Prescription
Implication
Necessity
Grant |
|
|
Term
Property
What are T's entitlements when the implied warranty of habitability is breached?
EBP |
|
Definition
MR3
Move
Repair
Reduce
Remain |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "cover damages"
EBP |
|
Definition
They are a type of buyer's damages under Article 2.
cover price (-) contract price, if buyer covers in good faith. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
Gender classifications are suspect, quasi-suspect, or neither?
What is the applicable standard?
Who bears the burden?
EBP |
|
Definition
Quasi-suspect classification
Intermediate scrutiny applies: must be substantially related to an important government purpose or they will be held to violate Equal Protection.
Government bears burden of showing an "exceedingly persuasive justification" for the discrimination. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
When will abandonment be a defense to an attempt charge under the M.P.C.?
EBP |
|
Definition
Under the modern M.P.C. approach, a complete and fully voluntary abandonment of the crime is a defense to an attempt charge.
The abandonment must not be a temporary abandonment of the criminal purpose nor simply to find a different victim. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
What is the current iteration of the "clear and present danger" test?
EBP |
|
Definition
The current "clear and present danger" test provides that a state cannot forbid advocating the use of force or violation of law, unless such advocacy is:
- directed to producing or inciting imminent lawless action; and
- likely to produce such action. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
What is another way to satisfy the intent to permanently depriving (aka "intent to steal") requirement for larceny?
EBP |
|
Definition
If the defendant intends to deal with the property in a manner that involves a substantial risk of loss, this intent is sufficient for larceny. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Wife sends a postcard to her husband. Is it protected by the husband-wife privilege?
EBP |
|
Definition
No. Under the husband-wife privilege, confidential marital communications cannot be disclosed.
However, since the means of communication was by a postcard, which could be read by anyone, there is no expectation of privacy, and the privilege is lost. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
What is the difference between the Federal Rule on dying declarations and the traditional rule?
EBP |
|
Definition
Federal Rule: Homicide prosecution or civil action.
- declarant believed his death was imminent (he need not actually die); and
- the statement concerned the cause or circumstances of what he believed to be his impending death.
Traditional Rule: Homicide prosecutions.
- required the declarant to actually die of the injury. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
Under the common law, can one burglarize a detatched garage? Why or why not?
EBP |
|
Definition
No. If the common law elements apply, then the garage is not a "dwelling" (i.e., a structure regularly used for sleeping). Hence, no burglary. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
Define "recklessly"
Is it a common law or MPC mental state?
EBP |
|
Definition
When the defendant is aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk, and consciously disregards that risk. |
|
|
Term
Property
What are the three (3) types of waste?
EBP |
|
Definition
1. Voluntary (affirmative) waste
2. Permissive waste
3. Ameliorative waste |
|
|
Term
Property
What are the elements of constructive eviction?
EBP |
|
Definition
SING
Substantial Interference due to L's actions or failure to act.
Notice: T must tell L about the problem, and L must fail to respond adequately.
Goodbye: T must leave within a reasonable time after L fails to fix it. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
How many MPC mental states are there? Name them.
EBP |
|
Definition
There are five (5):
- Purposely
- Knowingly
- Recklessly
- Negligently
- Strict Liability |
|
|
Term
Con Law
Are legitimacy classifications suspect, quasi-suspect, or neither?
What is the standard of review?
EBP |
|
Definition
Legitimacy is a quasi-suspect classification.
Intermediate scrutiny applies: must be substantially related to an important government interest. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
Can zoning be used to curtail adult entertainment establishments without violating the First Amendment?
EBP |
|
Definition
Yes. Zoning may limit the location or size of adult establishments if the regulation is designed to reduce the secondary effects of such businesses (e.g., rise in crime rates, drop in property values, etc.).
But, regulations may not ban such establishments altogether. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "resale damages"
EBP |
|
Definition
This is the usual measure of seller's damages under Article 2.
contract price (-) resale price, if seller resells in good faith. |
|
|
Term
Property
What are the three (3) duties a tenant owes?
EBP
|
|
Definition
1. Duty to Repair (Doctrine of Waste)
2. Duty to not use premises for illegal purposes.
3. Duty to pay rent. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
What is the temporal requirement for the use of force in a robbery?
EBP |
|
Definition
Force is not part of the robbery unless the force is used immediately after the possession has been accomplished to prevent the victim from regaining the property. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Prior inconsistent statement given under oath at trial or deposition: hearsay "exception" or "exemption"?
Unavailability required? |
|
Definition
Exemptions
No, unavailability is not required. In fact, this exemption applies only to a declarant who is now testifying at trial. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Former testimony "exception" or "exemption"?
Unavailability required? |
|
Definition
Exception
Yes, unavailability required. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
Define "consequential damages".
Who is not entitled to them?
EBP |
|
Definition
Consequential damages are damages that are special to this plaintiff and were reasonably forseeable by the breaching party at the time of the contract.
They are not available to a seller under Article 2. |
|
|
Term
Con Law
If the government is acting in a parens patriae capacity may it enact laws that would, in other circumstances, violate equal protection?
EBP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Contracts
Explain the firm offer rule?
EBP |
|
Definition
In a sale of goods, if a merchant promises in a signed writing to keep an offer open, then the offer is irrevocable.
Note: consideration is not required.
Note: almost every business person is a merchant under Art. 2's broad definition. |
|
|
Term
Contracts
What are the four (4) situations where an offer cannot be revoked?
EBP |
|
Definition
1. Option: a promise to keep an offer open that is paid for.
2. Foreseeable reliance before acceptance: e.g., subcontractor submits a bid to contractor that contractor relies on in computing his own bid.
3. Starting to perform a unilateral contract.
4. Firm offer under Article 2. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
What are the five (5) important exceptions to the hearsay rule that condition admissibility on the present unavailability of the declarant to testify?
EBP |
|
Definition
1. Former testimony
2. Statements against interest
3. Dying declarations
4. Statements of Personal or Family History
5. Statements offered against party procuring declarant's unavailability |
|
|
Term
Property
What are the issue(s) in an unlawful detainer proceeding?
EBP |
|
Definition
The only issue is whether the tenant has a right to possession; the tenant cannot raise counter claims. |
|
|
Term
Property
What is the difference between a "security deposit" and a rent deposit denominated a "bonus"?
|
|
Definition
A landlord is not permitted to retain a security deposit beyond the damages actually suffered.
Howevere, if a rent deposit is denominated a bonus the landlord can retain it after the tenant is evicted. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Prior consistent statement offered to rebut a charge of recent fabrication or improper influence or motive "exception" or "exemption"?
Unavailability required?
CICW |
|
Definition
Exemption
No, unavailability is not required. In fact, this exemption requires the declarant to be testifying at the trial. |
|
|
Term
Property
Leased premises are destroyed without the fault of either the landlord or the tenant, what result?
EBP |
|
Definition
In the absence of lease language or a statute to the contrary, neither party has a duty to restore the premises, but tenant has a duty to continue paying rent.
In most states, statutes or case law now give the tenant the option to terminate the lease, even where the lease contains an express covenant to repair. |
|
|
Term
Property
The tenant is liable for all ordinary repairs, excluding ordinary wear and tear. What must the tenant do when this duty is shifted to the landlord either by lease or statute?
EBP |
|
Definition
The tenant has a duty to report deficiencies promptly. |
|
|
Term
Property
What does it mean to say covenants in leases are generally "independent"?
EBP |
|
Definition
"Independent" means that if one party breaches a covenant, the other party can recover damages, but must still perform his promises and cannot terminate the landlord-tenant relationship.
Note: The doctrines of actual and constructive eviction and the implied warranty of habitability are exceptions to this rule. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Murder prosecution. Defendant admits to shooting the victim but pleads insanity. Prosecution witness testifies he saw defendant shoot the victim. Relevant under FRE? Relevant under California evidence?
CICW |
|
Definition
FRE = Yes
California Evidence = No, it is not in dispute, thus California law says that it is irrelevant. Remember: California adds to the relevance definition: the fact of consequence must also be in dispute.
Side note: How would we handle this under FRE? It would not be a relevance objection, so we would have the court balance its probative value and likely determine that it is a "waste of time".
|
|
|
Term
Contracts
Six factors that courts look at to determine materiality of breach?
EBP |
|
Definition
1. the amount of benefit the non-breaching party received.
2. Adequacy of damages remedy.
3. Extent of part performance by breaching party.
4. Hardship to the breaching party.
5. Whether the breaching party's behavior was negligent or willful.
6. Likelihood of the breaching party's completing performance. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
When will silence almost never be considered an admission?
EBP |
|
Definition
Silence in the face of accusations by police in a criminal case is almost never considered an admission of a crime. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
What are the two (2) examples of common law malice crimes?
EBP
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Evidence
Under the FRE, when may one impeach a witness with prior felony convictions?
CICW |
|
Definition
Conviction for felony involving false statement: all felonies involving false statement (e.g., perjury, forgery, fraud) are admissible...no balancing of unfair prejudice against probative value unless conviction or release from prison (whichever is later) more than 10 years old.
Conviction for felony not involving false statement: May be admissible but court must balance. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Under FRE, if conviction is otherwise admissible under the rules, but is more than 10 years old (dated from conviction or release from prison, whichever is later), what result?
CICW |
|
Definition
It is inadmissible under Federal law unless probative value outweighs prejudice. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Under federal law, when may you impeach with prior misdemeanor convictions?
CICW |
|
Definition
Misdemeanors involving false statement: All misdemeanors involving false statement are admissible...there is no balancing of unfair prejudice against probative value except for old convictions.
Misdemeanors not involving false statement: All are inadmissible to impeach. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
Under federal law, is non-conviction misconduct bearing on truthfulness admissible or inadmissible?
CICW |
|
Definition
Admissible in civil and criminal cases, subject to balancing; must be act of lying;
extrinsic evidence inadmissible, but may ask witness about her misconduct on cross. |
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
Due process requires that a criminal statute not be vague. What must there be for a criminal statute to not be void for vagueness?
CMR |
|
Definition
There must be (i) fair warning (i.e., a person of ordinary intelligence must be able to discern what is prohibited), and (ii) no arbitrary and discriminatory enforcement.
|
|
|
Term
Criminal Law
What two (2) substantive limitations does the Constitution place on both federal and state legislatures?
CMR |
|
Definition
1. No ex post facto laws.
2. No bills of attainder. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
What is the rule for subsequent remedial measures under the FRE?
|
|
Definition
No evidence that Defendant fixed/cured the defect/hazard after the accident, unless defendant denies control, feasibility or ownership. |
|
|
Term
Evidence
What are (7) purposes for which character evidence will be allowed under FRE 404(b)? |
|
Definition
MIMIC OK
Motive
Intent
Mistake, absence of
Identity
Common plan or scheme
Opportunity
Knowledge |
|
|