Shared Flashcard Set

Details

112
Final Preparation
145
Medical
Professional
05/22/2012

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Identify which of these functions and steps are NOT part of the Instumentation Chain:

a) detect the biological signal
b) amplify, filter & process the signal
c) display the signal
d) store the signal
e) they ALL are part of the Instumentation Chain
Definition
e) they ALL are part of the Instumentation Chain
Term
Choose the best answer: Why would you need to store the original ultrasound signal that is detected?

a) There IS no reason to retain the original signal
b) So that you can increase the bandwidth of the original signal
c) So that you can filter-amplify-filter-amplify to get a less noisy signal
d) So that you can reproduce the original data and modify the output
e) It is required by most instruments that have transducers
Definition
d) So that you can reproduce the original data and modify the output
Term
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding transducers and their properties?

a) Transducers are fairly sensitive and specific
b) Transducers detect a signal and noise
c) Transducers must be sensitive
d) Transducers convert biological signals into some other form of energy
e) Transducers can be at any stage of the Instrumentation Chain
Definition
e) Transducers can be at any stage of the Instrumentation Chain
Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:

Passive sensing

a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer
b) Distinguish on biological signal from another
c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal
d) Measure without limiting signal production
e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion
Definition
c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal
Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:

Errors

a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer
b) Distinguish on biological signal from another
c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal
d) Measure without limiting signal production
e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion
Definition
e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion
Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:

Applicability

a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer
b) Distinguish on biological signal from another
c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal
d) Measure without limiting signal production
e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion
Definition
d) Measure without limiting signal production
Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:

Active sensing

a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer
b) Distinguish on biological signal from another
c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal
d) Measure without limiting signal production
e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion
Definition
a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer
Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:

Specificity

a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer
b) Distinguish on biological signal from another
c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal
d) Measure without limiting signal production
e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion
Definition
b) Distinguish on biological signal from another
Term
EKG electrodes on a patient's chest create which of the following conditions?

a) no potential difference and no voltage
b) no potential difference by potential in the "volt" range
c) a potential difference but potential in the "microvolt" range
d) a potential difference with the potenial in the "volt" range
Definition
b) no potential difference by potential in the "volt" range
Term
What is the minimum number of ports that a standard Swan-Ganz catheter must have?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 7
Definition
b) 4
Term
What is the maximum number of ports that a standard Swan-Ganz catheter can have?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 7
Definition
c) 7
Term
Fill-in the blank with the best response:

With a thermocouple, __________.

a) sensing is based on similar metals in the device
b) the patient's core temperature can be measured
c) the patient's temperature over a period of time can be charted
d) sensing is based on dissimilar metals in the device
e) temperature can be directly displayed on the patient monitor
Definition
d) sensing is based on dissimilar metals in the device
Term
a) True or b) false?

On an EKG display, the point at which there is neither cardiac electrical active toward or away from the electrodes is referred to as the electrostatic baseline
Definition
b) False
Term
When performing an EKG, the "salt bridge" consists of:

a) a silver chloride wire or connection
b) the skin and body fluid
c) aVR, aVL, and aVF
d) V1, V2, and V3
e) all of the above
Definition
b) the skin and body fluid
Term
On the EKG printout, what is the isoelectric baseline?

a) The point of isovolumic contraction
b) When the net voltage detected is zero
c) When the heart is repolarizing
d) The QRS
e) A sharp upward or downward deflection
Definition
b) When the net voltage detected is zero
Term
a) True or b) False?

One of the advantages of a disposable blood pressure transducer is that it never has to be zeroed
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False?

Frequency response is a system's output range in response to an input signal
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False?

A frequency response curve shows you the accuracy of the output signal
Definition
a) True
Term
When a system or component reproduces all desired input signals with not emphasis or attenuation, the system or component has:

a) a high or good frequency response
b) a moderate or average frequency response
c) a bad or poor frequency response
Definition
a) a high or good frequency response
Term
Is the following graph:

a) a high or good frequency response
b) a moderate or average frequency response
c) a bad or poor frequency response

[image]
Definition
c) a bad or poor frequency response
Term
Is the following graph:

a) a high or good frequency response
b) a moderate or average frequency response
c) a bad or poor frequency response

[image]
Definition
Andy called this one a poor frequency response but gave us a point back.

I called it a moderate frequency response
Term
Is the following graph:

a) a high or good frequency response
b) a moderate or average frequency response
c) a bad or poor frequency response

[image]
Definition
a) a high or good frequency response
Term
Is the following graph:

a) a high or good frequency response
b) a moderate or average frequency response
c) a bad or poor frequency response

[image]
Definition
Andy called this one a poor frequency response but gave us a point back.

I called it a moderate frequency response
Term
Which of the following answers is the main advantage of the domed Blood Pressure Transducer (BPT)?

a) Domed BPTs are very accurate, which is important when performing research
b) Domed BPTs are more expensive than disposable BPTs
c) Domed BPTs do not have to be calibrated
d) Domed BPTs do not have to be zeroed
e) it is easier and faster to use a domed BPT
Definition
a) Domed BPTs are very accurate, which is important when performing research
Term
What is the normal range that you will encounter when using a Pulse Oximeter measurement?

a) 100% must be displayed or the patient is hypoxic
b) Less than 100% but greater than 85% is normal
c) 95 to 100% can be expected normally
d) 90-95% is normal since some of the blood cells do not transport oxygen
e) The readout will display "Normal" for you, so no interpretation is necessary
Definition
c) 95 to 100% can be expected normally
Term
How do pulse oximeters and photoplethysmographs work?

a) Visible light relects off of blood cells and is picked up by a receptor
b) Infra-red light reflects off of blood cells and is picked up by a receptor
c) The velocity of the blood in the capillaries is detected using light.
d) Visible light reflects off of capillaries and is picked up by a reflector
e) None of the answers are correct
Definition
b) Infra-red light reflects off of blood cells and is picked up by a receptor
Term
a) True or b) False:

The readout on the pulse oximeter always reflects the true oxygen carrying capacity of the arterial blood
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False:

Arterial Blood Gas analysis is typically performed by a phlebotomist, but may be drawn and performed in the Cath Lab, by trained Invasive CVTs, as equipment becomes more sophisticated and easier to use
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False:

The basic Swan-Ganz catheter detects pressures in the Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Heart and Pulmonary Artery
Definition
a) True
Term
Where are variable resistors found in a cardiovascular technology setting?

a) The TGC or TDC slides on an Acuson Sequoia 512C
b) On a HP EKG signal amplitude control
c) On a GE Mac 5000 Cardiac Monitor screen brightness control
d) The volume dial on a Parks 5103C CW Doppler machine
e) All of the above
Definition
e) All of the above
Term
The S-T segment on the EKG you are looking at has a 2 mm elevation. What condition are you most likely encountering in the patient?

a) Second Degree Heart Block of some kind
b) Hypoxia
c) Sinus Tachycardia
d) An active Myocardial Infarction
e) None of the above
Definition
d) An active Myocardial Infarction
Term
We use Wheatstone Bridge circuits to perform zeroing and calibration. The major electronic component involved in a Wheatstone Bridge is a:

a) variable transistor
b) variable LED
c) variable power source
d) adjustable voltmeter
e) variable resistor
Definition
e) variable resistor
Term
From a "simplified" view of a patient's ABG, as a CVT you would expect the pH of arterial blood:

a) to be acidic (less than 7.0)
b) to be alkaline (greater than 7.0)
c) to be neutral
d) to be between 7.35 and 7.45
e) vary slightly between acidic and alkaline
Definition
d) to be between 7.35 and 7.45
Term
In which of the following situation, would a pulse oximenter reading of 98.0% be an accurate and true representation of the patient's arterial blood saturation?

a) There is decreased O2 transport to the alveoli
b) There is a V/Q mismatch
c) The patient is anemic
d) The V/Q ratio = 1.0
e) The patient appears cyanotic
Definition
d) The V/Q ratio = 1.0
Term
a) True or b) False

A pulse oximeter is a non-invasive tool used by CVTs and Respiratory Therapists to measure the O2 saturation at a patient's extremity.
Definition
a) True
Term
After performing a V/Q scan, the radiologist reports that there are pulmonary emboli present in the upper right lobe. The V/Q ratio is 0.89. This ratio is:

a) normal
b) abnormally high
c) abnormally low
d) not enough information. More testing is required
Definition
c) abnormally low
Term
Match the component to their description:

pH

a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood
d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood
e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood
Definition
d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood
Term
Match the component to their description:

PaO2

a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood
d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood
e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood
Definition
a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
Term
Match the component to their description:

SaO2

a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood
d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood
e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood
Definition
e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood
Term
Match the component to their description:

PaCO2

a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood
d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood
e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood
Definition
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood
Term
Match the component to their description:

HCO3

a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood
d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood
e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood
Definition
b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components
Term
a) True or b) False

There are two methods of obtaining pulse oximetry: reflected light and through the tissue
Definition
a) True
Term
When the human body is in a state of __________, it releases more bicarbonate to return it to its normal homeostatic state

a) alkalosis
b) acidosis
Definition
b) acidosis
Term
A pulse oximeter uses __________ to reflect off of blood.

a) microwaves
b) sound waves
c) capillaries
d) visible light
e) infra-red light
Definition
e) infra-red light
Term
a) True or b) False

Pulse oximetry is painless for the patient and the senso can penetrate any covering or condition of the patient's finger.
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

A thermistor is implanted toward the end of a Swan-Ganz catheter to measure the patients' blood temperature.
Definition
a) True
Term
When the Swan-Ganz catheter is advanced to PCW, what is essentially created for a few seconds?

a) A total occlusion of the right or left pulmonar artery
b) A total occlusion of the right or left pulmonary vein
c) An arterial stenosis
d) A pulmonary embolism
e) A total eclipse of the heart
Definition
d) A pulmonary embolism
Term
a) True or b) False

A Swan-Ganz catheter is only used in the right side of the heart.
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

At PAW, Aoritic systolic and diastoic pressures can be measured.
Definition
a) True
Term
A large enough bubble in the pressure tubing of a Swan-Ganz catheter can act like:

a) a shock absorber, damping the pressure displayed on the patient monitor
b) an amplifier, increasing the pressure displayed on the patient monitor
c) a valve, shutting off the pressure displayed on the patient monitor
d) a Wheatstone Bridge, allowing the Tech to modify the pressure displayed on the patient monitor
Definition
a) a shock absorber, damping the pressure displayed on the patient monitor
Term
Which of the following devices does not involve the piezoelectric phenomenon?
a) CW Doppler
b) PW Doppler
c) inkjet printer
d) BBQ igniter
e) iPad
Definition
e) iPad
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

The crystal array is distored by a timed electrical impulse, then waits to receive the returing echoes.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

They use transducers typically in the 3 to 12 MHz range.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
a) Non-invasive Lab
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

One crystal is distorted by an electrical impulse, creating sound waves. A separate crystal listens for the echoes to return.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

This must be used to exclude air.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
c) Coupling Gel
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

They use transducers typically in the 20 to 40 MHz range.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
e) Invasive Lab
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

It can produce images in grey-scalle or color.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

It only produces a tracing on the video screen or paper strip.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.

This acts as a transition between the patient's skin and the probe.

a) Non-invasive Lab
b) Continuous Wave Doppler
c) Coupling Gel
d) Pulse Wave Doppler
e) Invasive Lab
Definition
c) Coupling Gel
Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.

Transducer

a) New information from the original signal is derived
b) The frequency content of the signal is altered
c) The energy level of the signal is altered
d) A physical property changes to electrical energy
Definition
d) A physical property changes to electrical energy
Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.

Amplifiers

a) New information from the original signal is derived
b) The frequency content of the signal is altered
c) The energy level of the signal is altered
d) A physical property changes to electrical energy
Definition
c) The energy level of the signal is altered
Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.

Signal Processors

a) New information from the original signal is derived
b) The frequency content of the signal is altered
c) The energy level of the signal is altered
d) A physical property changes to electrical energy
Definition
a) New information from the original signal is derived
Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.

Filters

a) New information from the original signal is derived
b) The frequency content of the signal is altered
c) The energy level of the signal is altered
d) A physical property changes to electrical energy
Definition
b) The frequency content of the signal is altered
Term
a) True or b) False

The graphic representation of a theoretical filter and functional filter have the same characteristics (look the same).
Definition
b) False
Term
The functional cut-off frequency is reached at the point that the frequencies reach a __________ reduction of the original signal amplitude.

a) 50%
b) 70.7%
c) steep
d) 3 dB
e) 100%
Definition
d) 3 dB
Term
A filter is considered to be "active at the stop band" because the frequencies in tha tarea do not have enough __________.

a) energy to perform work
b) slope to accomplish work
c) operational frequency bandwidth
d) current or voltage
e) strength in the transition band
Definition
a) energy to perform work
Term
"Ideal or Theoretical Filter"

[image]
Definition
b
Term
"Functional Filter"

[image]
Definition
c
Term
Which of the following statement is inaccurate in reference to signal processors?

a) Signal processors modify the original signal in some way
b) It is rare to find signal processors in medical instrumentation
c) signal processors use math or formulas to derive a new signal
d) Logical Operator statements can be used in computer code for signal processing
e) Logical Operators, and math and/or algebraic statements, can be combined
Definition
b) It is rare to find signal processors in medical instrumentation
Term
a) True or b) False

There are a variety of display device options because the output display requirements will vary from application to application, and it is the technologist's responsibility to decide what is required.
Definition
a) True
Term
One of the following statements is incorrect when discussing amplification. Select the one answer that is FALSE.

a) Amplifiers increase the energy of the initial signal
b) Amplification is a dimensionless ratio
c) Amplification is calculated as input divided by output
d) Amplification is calculated as output divided by input
e) Ultrasound amplification is also known as gain
Definition
c) Amplification is calculated as input divided by output
Term
a) True or b) False

Transducer input boltage is generally found to be in the micro- to millivolts but output devices operate in the range of volts
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

Saturation voltage is the minimum voltage voltage required to operate an output device
Definition
f) False
Term
a) True or b) False

The maximum output voltage is limited by the power supply voltage
Definition
a) True
Term
A simple harmonic frequency of 400 cycles per second, in a 50 Hz generating system, is what whole number harmonic?

a) 4th
b) 5th
c) 8th
d) 50th
e) 2000th
Definition
c) 8th
Term
Identify which of the follwing components is not used in an analog filter operation:

a) resistors
b) computer code
c) capcitors
d) inductors
Definition
b) computer code
Term
When an amplifier reaches "saturation", which of the following occurs?

a) distortion
b) defragmenation
c) over-damping
d) distribution
e) a wet amplifier
Definition
a) distortion
Term
Which of the following will be found in the signal chain of any medical electronical device?

a) damping
b) LCDs
c) distortion
d) noise
e) clipping
Definition
d) noise
Term
a) True or b) False

Pass Band, Transition Band, and Band Reject all mean the same thing?
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

Signal Processors use mathematic operators, algebraic operators and logical operators to create new information from the input signal
Definition
a) True
Term
A 50% reduction in ___________ is the result of a 3dB amplitude reduction.

a) Power
b) Current
c) Voltage
d) Resistance
e) None of the above
Definition
a) Power
Term
a) True or b) False

Distortion creates noise
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

There are several categories of distortion
Definition
a) True
Term
When an amplifier circuit reaches and then exceeds its maximum output capacity, a certain type of distortion is created called __________.

a) ringing
b) distortion
c) amplification
d) saturation
e) clipping
Definition
e) clipping
Term
There are three categories of storage devices that were discussed in class. Which has the fastest access time?

a) Tertiary
b) Secondary
c) Primary
d) They all have the same access time
Definition
c) Primary
Term
There is a relatively new mass storage device just hitting the consumer market. It is called:

a) solid state drive
b) flash drive
c) thumb drive
d) USB drive
Definition
a) solid state drive
Term
a) True or b) False

For primary, secondary and tertiary storage, each category is slower than the preceding category
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

Hard drives have faster access time compared to mass storage tertiary devices
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

Future storage capacity is not a consideration when purchasing medical devices
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

Tertiary storage has the same access time as a hard drive, but significantly more storage
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

Devices include scanners, CPUs, printers, monitors and storage devices can be DICOM compatible.
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

DICOM patient files can be accessed by anyone on the internet with a password
Definition
b) False
Term
DICOM files are shared between multiple medical sites.
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

"PACS" is a storage systme for medical information while "DICOM" is a file sharing protocol.
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

Tje advamtage pf a BNC connection is that it is an electrically secure by permanent connection once the two ends are joined together.
Definition
b) False
Term
Match he word or term to the picture

USB

[image]
Definition
d
Term
Match he word or term to the picture

RJ-11

[image]
Definition
b
Term
Match he word or term to the picture

BNC

[image]
Definition
a
Term
Match he word or term to the picture

Phono Plug

[image]
Definition
e
Term
Match he word or term to the picture

RS-232

[image]
Definition
c
Term
Cardiac pacemakers perform which of the following functions:

a) Provide overriding electrical stimuli
b) Cause myocardial contraction
c) Can provide resynchronization therapy for CHF
d) Can act as a cardioverter-defibrillator
e) All of the above
Definition
e) All of the above
Term
A permanent pacemaker battery typically lasts:

a) 1 to 3 years
b) 3 to 5 years
c) 5 to 10 years
d) More than 10 years
e) Indefinitely
Definition
c) 5 to 10 years
Term
Finish the following statement so that it is as accurate as possible:

"A pulse generator in asynchronous mode...

a) mimics intrinsic pacing of the patient."
b) waits for atrial depolarization."
c) looks for depolarization potential."
d) produces an impulse at a set rate."
e) constanty adjusts its rate."
Definition
d) produces an impulse at a set rate."
Term
If a lead wire fractures and the insulation remains intact, identify the following result:

a) The resistance will increase
b) The voltage needed to capture will change.
c) The battery in the pulse generator may over-heat
d) The resistance will decrease
e) All of the above can happen
Definition
a) The resistance will increase
Term
If the insulation breaks and exposes the intact lead wire to body fluid, identify the following result:

a) The resistance will increase
b) The voltage needed to capture will change
c) The battery in the pulse generator may over-heat
d) The resistance will decrease
e) All of the above can happen
Definition
d) The resistance will decrease
Term
Identify which of the following would not be a major reason to extract a lead.

a) Lead wire fracture
b) New technology results in a better lead design
c) Scar tissue on lead tip interferes with capture
d) Infection
e) Lead insulation damage
Definition
b) New technology results in a better lead design
Term
Electrical depolarization of the myocardium results in:

a) congestive heart failure
b) mechanical contraction
c) myocardial infarction
d) respiratory variation
e) PVCs
Definition
b) mechanical contraction
Term
Which of the following imaging modalities would be most appropriate to perform prior to a cardiac catheterization procedure, assuming that the cath procedure is non-emergent?

a) vascular ultrasound of the femoral vessels
b) coronary fluoroscopy
c) PET scan
d) echocardiography
e) MRI
Definition
d) echocardiography
Term
Finish the following statement so that it is as accurate as possible:

"A pulse generator is synchronous mode...

a) mimics intrinsic pacing of the patient."
b) waits for atrial depolarization."
c) looks for depolarization potential."
d) produces an impulse at a set rate."
e) constanty adjusts its rate."
Definition
e) constanty adjusts its rate."
Term
Your favorite interventional cardiologist is inserting a single-lead pacemaker in the cath lab. Where would you anticipate the generator case to be placed in the majority of the cases?

a) In the right chest wall
b) In a pouch at the patient's waist
c) In the left chest wall
d) In the abdominal cavity
e) Hanging from a strap around the patient's neck
Definition
c) In the left chest wall
Term
Your favorite interventional cardiologist is inserting a multi-lead pacemaker. She placed leads in the right atrium and ventricle, plus two other locations. What type of pacemaker is she most-likely implanting?

a) an asynchronous pacer
b) a PTCA pacemaker
c) a synchronous pacer
d) a bipolar pacemaker
e) a defibrillating pacer
Definition
e) a defibrillating pacer
Term
a) True or b) False

Tined leads are place in the atria or ventricles
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

Screw-in leads are placed only in the ventricles
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

Epicardial leads are placed using the PTCA technique
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

Endocardial leads can be unipolar or bipolar
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

Epicardial leads are placed in children so that the leads can stretch
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

If a lead needs to be placed in the left ventricle, it is in a branch of of the Left Coronary Vein
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

The lead tip is always the negative pole of the lead
Definition
a) True
Term
Why would you not leave an external pulse generator in place for longer than 10 days?

a) The patient must have a catheterization before the 10 day limit
b) The patient may have another MI
c) The batteries only last a maximum of 10 days
d) The pacing leads become endothelialized
e) The pacing lead must be permanently embedded in the endothelium
Definition
d) The pacing leads become endothelialized
Term
Which department places most of the external pulse generators?

a) The Emergency Department
b) The Endoscopic Surgery Suites
c) The Cath Lab/Invasive Cardiology
d) The General Surgery Department
e) None of the above are correct
Definition
a) The Emergency Department
Term
Can you see a pacemaker on an X-ray?

a) Always
b) Sometimes
c) Never
Definition
a) Always
Term
Since you can use x-rays to see a pacemaker, what kind of energy does the cardiologist use to set, reset, analyze, and query a pacemaker?

a) x-rays
b) electronic pulses of energy
c) photoplethysmography
d) microwaves
e) magnetic pulses
Definition
e) magnetic pulses
Term
Mr. Jones, your patient, has a pacemaker that has been in place for almost 8 years and the pacer analyzer shows that ther is sufficient power for another year. Which of the following devices, according to the lecture notes, would you suggest your patient avoid until he receives his new generator?

a) microwave ovens
b) cell phones
c) iPods and other MP3 players
d) high-power lines
e) magnetic resonance imaging
Definition
e) magnetic resonance imaging
Term
Emergency pacing leads are:

a) smooth bare metal but they will simply slide out, and are therefore unacceptable
b) screw-in so that they can be anchored in-place but unscrewed prior to permanent leads
c) tined so that they do not slip out and can be used as permanent leads
d) are placed epicardially and can be easily removed
e) None of the above answers are correct
Definition
e) None of the above answers are correct
Term
a) True or b) False

Pacemaker energy output is based on pulse amplitude and duration. There cannot be a depolarization event if there is no capture.
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

The signal pulse amplitude is measure on the Y-axis in volts and the pulse duration is measured on the X-axis in milliseconds
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

An implanted pacer battery typically lasts 5-8 years
Definition
a) True
Term
Identify the degree of risk of a negative outcome (death, cardiac arrest or myocardial infarction) during cardiac catheterization.

a) Around 5 in 100 have a negative outcome
b) Around 2 in 100 have a negative outcome
c) More than 5% have a negative outcome
d) Fewer than 1 in 200 has a negative outcome
e) None of these statistics are correct
Definition
e) None of these statistics are correct
Term
Identify which of the following conditions would predispose a patient to higher risk during cardiac catheterization.

a) unstable angina
b) LV ejection fraction of less that 35%
c) sever triple vessel disease
d) congestive heart failure
e) any one of the above are high risk
Definition
e) any one of the above are high risk
Term
Identify which of the following is a contraindication for performing an angiographic cath procedure:

a) atrial fibrillation
b) renal failure
c) 38% LV ejection fraction
d) third degree heart block
e) previous catheterization
Definition
b) renal failure
Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab

Invasive Cardiologist

a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care
b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies
c) Assists the "Scrub Tech"
d) Directs the team
e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient
Definition
d) Directs the team
Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab

Registered Nurse

a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care
b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies
c) Assists the "Scrub Tech"
d) Directs the team
e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient
Definition
b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies
Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab

Rad Tech

a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care
b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies
c) Assists the "Scrub Tech"
d) Directs the team
e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient
Definition
e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient
Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab

Circulator

a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care
b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies
c) Assists the "Scrub Tech"
d) Directs the team
e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient
Definition
c) Assists the "Scrub Tech"
Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab

Scrub Tech

a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care
b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies
c) Assists the "Scrub Tech"
d) Directs the team
e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient
Definition
a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care
Term
Who on the team is responsible for monitoring the condition of the patient?

a) MD
b) RN
c) RT
d) RCIS
e) All of the above
Definition
e) All of the above
Term
a) True or b) False

The term for the device in the catheterization lab called the "C-arm" is called that because the "C" stands for "catheteriztion"
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

It would be rare to find a cath lab in which the x-ray and fluoroscopic imaging is incompatible with PACS and DICOM.
Definition
a) True
Term
a) True or b) False

The RN is the only one in the Cath Suite that is allowed to inject medication and therefore is the person who will operate the contrast power injector
Definition
b) False
Term
a) True or b) False

A temporary external pacemaker can be in place for up to 10 days, but an intra-aortic ballon pump can be used for 30 days or longer.
Definition
a) True
Term
Normal blood desaturation is considered to be ~75% in almost all veins. In which part of the heart is the blood essentially unsaturated?
Definition
SA Node
Term
Describe the place in the body where venous blood flows away from the heart.
Definition
MPA
Term
Which part of the heart DOES NOT receive substantial blood flow during systole, but instead, the majority of flow occurs during diastole?
Definition
Coronary Arteries
Term
What is the name of the structure that separates the ventricles?
Definition
IVS
Term
Describe the order in which the cardiac chambers contract.
Definition
RA→LA→RV→LV
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