Term
Identify which of these functions and steps are NOT part of the Instumentation Chain:
a) detect the biological signal b) amplify, filter & process the signal c) display the signal d) store the signal e) they ALL are part of the Instumentation Chain |
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Definition
e) they ALL are part of the Instumentation Chain |
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Term
Choose the best answer: Why would you need to store the original ultrasound signal that is detected?
a) There IS no reason to retain the original signal b) So that you can increase the bandwidth of the original signal c) So that you can filter-amplify-filter-amplify to get a less noisy signal d) So that you can reproduce the original data and modify the output e) It is required by most instruments that have transducers |
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Definition
d) So that you can reproduce the original data and modify the output |
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Term
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding transducers and their properties?
a) Transducers are fairly sensitive and specific b) Transducers detect a signal and noise c) Transducers must be sensitive d) Transducers convert biological signals into some other form of energy e) Transducers can be at any stage of the Instrumentation Chain |
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Definition
e) Transducers can be at any stage of the Instrumentation Chain |
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Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:
Passive sensing
a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer b) Distinguish on biological signal from another c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal d) Measure without limiting signal production e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion |
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Definition
c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal |
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Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:
Errors
a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer b) Distinguish on biological signal from another c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal d) Measure without limiting signal production e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion |
|
Definition
e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion |
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Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:
Applicability
a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer b) Distinguish on biological signal from another c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal d) Measure without limiting signal production e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion |
|
Definition
d) Measure without limiting signal production |
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Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:
Active sensing
a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer b) Distinguish on biological signal from another c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal d) Measure without limiting signal production e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion |
|
Definition
a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer |
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Term
Match the following transducer properties and design characteristic terms to the most appropriate definition:
Specificity
a) Energy from outside the body powers the transducer b) Distinguish on biological signal from another c) The body supplies the energy for sensing the signal d) Measure without limiting signal production e) Concerned with linearity, bandwidth and little distortion |
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Definition
b) Distinguish on biological signal from another |
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Term
EKG electrodes on a patient's chest create which of the following conditions?
a) no potential difference and no voltage b) no potential difference by potential in the "volt" range c) a potential difference but potential in the "microvolt" range d) a potential difference with the potenial in the "volt" range |
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Definition
b) no potential difference by potential in the "volt" range |
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Term
What is the minimum number of ports that a standard Swan-Ganz catheter must have?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 7 |
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Definition
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Term
What is the maximum number of ports that a standard Swan-Ganz catheter can have?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 7 |
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Definition
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Term
Fill-in the blank with the best response:
With a thermocouple, __________.
a) sensing is based on similar metals in the device b) the patient's core temperature can be measured c) the patient's temperature over a period of time can be charted d) sensing is based on dissimilar metals in the device e) temperature can be directly displayed on the patient monitor |
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Definition
d) sensing is based on dissimilar metals in the device |
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Term
a) True or b) false?
On an EKG display, the point at which there is neither cardiac electrical active toward or away from the electrodes is referred to as the electrostatic baseline |
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Definition
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Term
When performing an EKG, the "salt bridge" consists of:
a) a silver chloride wire or connection b) the skin and body fluid c) aVR, aVL, and aVF d) V1, V2, and V3 e) all of the above |
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Definition
b) the skin and body fluid |
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Term
On the EKG printout, what is the isoelectric baseline?
a) The point of isovolumic contraction b) When the net voltage detected is zero c) When the heart is repolarizing d) The QRS e) A sharp upward or downward deflection |
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Definition
b) When the net voltage detected is zero |
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Term
a) True or b) False?
One of the advantages of a disposable blood pressure transducer is that it never has to be zeroed |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False?
Frequency response is a system's output range in response to an input signal |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False?
A frequency response curve shows you the accuracy of the output signal |
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Definition
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Term
When a system or component reproduces all desired input signals with not emphasis or attenuation, the system or component has:
a) a high or good frequency response b) a moderate or average frequency response c) a bad or poor frequency response |
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Definition
a) a high or good frequency response |
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Term
Is the following graph:
a) a high or good frequency response b) a moderate or average frequency response c) a bad or poor frequency response
[image] |
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Definition
c) a bad or poor frequency response |
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Term
Is the following graph:
a) a high or good frequency response b) a moderate or average frequency response c) a bad or poor frequency response
[image] |
|
Definition
Andy called this one a poor frequency response but gave us a point back.
I called it a moderate frequency response |
|
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Term
Is the following graph:
a) a high or good frequency response b) a moderate or average frequency response c) a bad or poor frequency response
[image] |
|
Definition
a) a high or good frequency response |
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Term
Is the following graph:
a) a high or good frequency response b) a moderate or average frequency response c) a bad or poor frequency response
[image] |
|
Definition
Andy called this one a poor frequency response but gave us a point back.
I called it a moderate frequency response |
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Term
Which of the following answers is the main advantage of the domed Blood Pressure Transducer (BPT)?
a) Domed BPTs are very accurate, which is important when performing research b) Domed BPTs are more expensive than disposable BPTs c) Domed BPTs do not have to be calibrated d) Domed BPTs do not have to be zeroed e) it is easier and faster to use a domed BPT |
|
Definition
a) Domed BPTs are very accurate, which is important when performing research |
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Term
What is the normal range that you will encounter when using a Pulse Oximeter measurement?
a) 100% must be displayed or the patient is hypoxic b) Less than 100% but greater than 85% is normal c) 95 to 100% can be expected normally d) 90-95% is normal since some of the blood cells do not transport oxygen e) The readout will display "Normal" for you, so no interpretation is necessary |
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Definition
c) 95 to 100% can be expected normally |
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Term
How do pulse oximeters and photoplethysmographs work?
a) Visible light relects off of blood cells and is picked up by a receptor b) Infra-red light reflects off of blood cells and is picked up by a receptor c) The velocity of the blood in the capillaries is detected using light. d) Visible light reflects off of capillaries and is picked up by a reflector e) None of the answers are correct |
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Definition
b) Infra-red light reflects off of blood cells and is picked up by a receptor |
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Term
a) True or b) False:
The readout on the pulse oximeter always reflects the true oxygen carrying capacity of the arterial blood |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False:
Arterial Blood Gas analysis is typically performed by a phlebotomist, but may be drawn and performed in the Cath Lab, by trained Invasive CVTs, as equipment becomes more sophisticated and easier to use |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False:
The basic Swan-Ganz catheter detects pressures in the Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Heart and Pulmonary Artery |
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Definition
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Term
Where are variable resistors found in a cardiovascular technology setting?
a) The TGC or TDC slides on an Acuson Sequoia 512C b) On a HP EKG signal amplitude control c) On a GE Mac 5000 Cardiac Monitor screen brightness control d) The volume dial on a Parks 5103C CW Doppler machine e) All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The S-T segment on the EKG you are looking at has a 2 mm elevation. What condition are you most likely encountering in the patient?
a) Second Degree Heart Block of some kind b) Hypoxia c) Sinus Tachycardia d) An active Myocardial Infarction e) None of the above |
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Definition
d) An active Myocardial Infarction |
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Term
We use Wheatstone Bridge circuits to perform zeroing and calibration. The major electronic component involved in a Wheatstone Bridge is a:
a) variable transistor b) variable LED c) variable power source d) adjustable voltmeter e) variable resistor |
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Definition
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Term
From a "simplified" view of a patient's ABG, as a CVT you would expect the pH of arterial blood:
a) to be acidic (less than 7.0) b) to be alkaline (greater than 7.0) c) to be neutral d) to be between 7.35 and 7.45 e) vary slightly between acidic and alkaline |
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Definition
d) to be between 7.35 and 7.45 |
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Term
In which of the following situation, would a pulse oximenter reading of 98.0% be an accurate and true representation of the patient's arterial blood saturation?
a) There is decreased O2 transport to the alveoli b) There is a V/Q mismatch c) The patient is anemic d) The V/Q ratio = 1.0 e) The patient appears cyanotic |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
A pulse oximeter is a non-invasive tool used by CVTs and Respiratory Therapists to measure the O2 saturation at a patient's extremity. |
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Definition
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Term
After performing a V/Q scan, the radiologist reports that there are pulmonary emboli present in the upper right lobe. The V/Q ratio is 0.89. This ratio is:
a) normal b) abnormally high c) abnormally low d) not enough information. More testing is required |
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Definition
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Term
Match the component to their description:
pH
a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood |
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Definition
d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood |
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Term
Match the component to their description:
PaO2
a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood |
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Definition
a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood |
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Term
Match the component to their description:
SaO2
a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood |
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Definition
e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood |
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Term
Match the component to their description:
PaCO2
a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood |
|
Definition
c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood |
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Term
Match the component to their description:
HCO3
a)The partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components c) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood d) A determination of hydrogen ions disolved in the blood e) Arterial oxygen saturation of the blood |
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Definition
b) Helps buffer (stabilize) the blood and its components |
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Term
a) True or b) False
There are two methods of obtaining pulse oximetry: reflected light and through the tissue |
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Definition
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Term
When the human body is in a state of __________, it releases more bicarbonate to return it to its normal homeostatic state
a) alkalosis b) acidosis |
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Definition
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Term
A pulse oximeter uses __________ to reflect off of blood.
a) microwaves b) sound waves c) capillaries d) visible light e) infra-red light |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Pulse oximetry is painless for the patient and the senso can penetrate any covering or condition of the patient's finger. |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
A thermistor is implanted toward the end of a Swan-Ganz catheter to measure the patients' blood temperature. |
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Definition
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Term
When the Swan-Ganz catheter is advanced to PCW, what is essentially created for a few seconds?
a) A total occlusion of the right or left pulmonar artery b) A total occlusion of the right or left pulmonary vein c) An arterial stenosis d) A pulmonary embolism e) A total eclipse of the heart |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
A Swan-Ganz catheter is only used in the right side of the heart. |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
At PAW, Aoritic systolic and diastoic pressures can be measured. |
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Definition
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Term
A large enough bubble in the pressure tubing of a Swan-Ganz catheter can act like:
a) a shock absorber, damping the pressure displayed on the patient monitor b) an amplifier, increasing the pressure displayed on the patient monitor c) a valve, shutting off the pressure displayed on the patient monitor d) a Wheatstone Bridge, allowing the Tech to modify the pressure displayed on the patient monitor |
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Definition
a) a shock absorber, damping the pressure displayed on the patient monitor |
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Term
Which of the following devices does not involve the piezoelectric phenomenon? a) CW Doppler b) PW Doppler c) inkjet printer d) BBQ igniter e) iPad |
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Definition
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
The crystal array is distored by a timed electrical impulse, then waits to receive the returing echoes.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
They use transducers typically in the 3 to 12 MHz range.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
One crystal is distorted by an electrical impulse, creating sound waves. A separate crystal listens for the echoes to return.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
b) Continuous Wave Doppler |
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
This must be used to exclude air.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
They use transducers typically in the 20 to 40 MHz range.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
It can produce images in grey-scalle or color.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
It only produces a tracing on the video screen or paper strip.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
b) Continuous Wave Doppler |
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Term
Match the most appropriate term to the description.
This acts as a transition between the patient's skin and the probe.
a) Non-invasive Lab b) Continuous Wave Doppler c) Coupling Gel d) Pulse Wave Doppler e) Invasive Lab |
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Definition
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Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.
Transducer
a) New information from the original signal is derived b) The frequency content of the signal is altered c) The energy level of the signal is altered d) A physical property changes to electrical energy |
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Definition
d) A physical property changes to electrical energy |
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Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.
Amplifiers
a) New information from the original signal is derived b) The frequency content of the signal is altered c) The energy level of the signal is altered d) A physical property changes to electrical energy |
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Definition
c) The energy level of the signal is altered |
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Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.
Signal Processors
a) New information from the original signal is derived b) The frequency content of the signal is altered c) The energy level of the signal is altered d) A physical property changes to electrical energy |
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Definition
a) New information from the original signal is derived |
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Term
Match the word to the most appropriate phrase.
Filters
a) New information from the original signal is derived b) The frequency content of the signal is altered c) The energy level of the signal is altered d) A physical property changes to electrical energy |
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Definition
b) The frequency content of the signal is altered |
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Term
a) True or b) False
The graphic representation of a theoretical filter and functional filter have the same characteristics (look the same). |
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Definition
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Term
The functional cut-off frequency is reached at the point that the frequencies reach a __________ reduction of the original signal amplitude.
a) 50% b) 70.7% c) steep d) 3 dB e) 100% |
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Definition
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Term
A filter is considered to be "active at the stop band" because the frequencies in tha tarea do not have enough __________.
a) energy to perform work b) slope to accomplish work c) operational frequency bandwidth d) current or voltage e) strength in the transition band |
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Definition
a) energy to perform work |
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Term
"Ideal or Theoretical Filter"
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
"Functional Filter"
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following statement is inaccurate in reference to signal processors?
a) Signal processors modify the original signal in some way b) It is rare to find signal processors in medical instrumentation c) signal processors use math or formulas to derive a new signal d) Logical Operator statements can be used in computer code for signal processing e) Logical Operators, and math and/or algebraic statements, can be combined |
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Definition
b) It is rare to find signal processors in medical instrumentation |
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Term
a) True or b) False
There are a variety of display device options because the output display requirements will vary from application to application, and it is the technologist's responsibility to decide what is required. |
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Definition
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Term
One of the following statements is incorrect when discussing amplification. Select the one answer that is FALSE.
a) Amplifiers increase the energy of the initial signal b) Amplification is a dimensionless ratio c) Amplification is calculated as input divided by output d) Amplification is calculated as output divided by input e) Ultrasound amplification is also known as gain |
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Definition
c) Amplification is calculated as input divided by output |
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Term
a) True or b) False
Transducer input boltage is generally found to be in the micro- to millivolts but output devices operate in the range of volts |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Saturation voltage is the minimum voltage voltage required to operate an output device |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
The maximum output voltage is limited by the power supply voltage |
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Definition
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Term
A simple harmonic frequency of 400 cycles per second, in a 50 Hz generating system, is what whole number harmonic?
a) 4th b) 5th c) 8th d) 50th e) 2000th |
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Definition
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Term
Identify which of the follwing components is not used in an analog filter operation:
a) resistors b) computer code c) capcitors d) inductors |
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Definition
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Term
When an amplifier reaches "saturation", which of the following occurs?
a) distortion b) defragmenation c) over-damping d) distribution e) a wet amplifier |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following will be found in the signal chain of any medical electronical device?
a) damping b) LCDs c) distortion d) noise e) clipping |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Pass Band, Transition Band, and Band Reject all mean the same thing? |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Signal Processors use mathematic operators, algebraic operators and logical operators to create new information from the input signal |
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Definition
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Term
A 50% reduction in ___________ is the result of a 3dB amplitude reduction.
a) Power b) Current c) Voltage d) Resistance e) None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Distortion creates noise |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
There are several categories of distortion |
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Definition
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Term
When an amplifier circuit reaches and then exceeds its maximum output capacity, a certain type of distortion is created called __________.
a) ringing b) distortion c) amplification d) saturation e) clipping |
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Definition
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Term
There are three categories of storage devices that were discussed in class. Which has the fastest access time?
a) Tertiary b) Secondary c) Primary d) They all have the same access time |
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Definition
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Term
There is a relatively new mass storage device just hitting the consumer market. It is called:
a) solid state drive b) flash drive c) thumb drive d) USB drive |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
For primary, secondary and tertiary storage, each category is slower than the preceding category |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Hard drives have faster access time compared to mass storage tertiary devices |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Future storage capacity is not a consideration when purchasing medical devices |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Tertiary storage has the same access time as a hard drive, but significantly more storage |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
Devices include scanners, CPUs, printers, monitors and storage devices can be DICOM compatible. |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
DICOM patient files can be accessed by anyone on the internet with a password |
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Definition
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Term
DICOM files are shared between multiple medical sites. |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
"PACS" is a storage systme for medical information while "DICOM" is a file sharing protocol. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
a) True or b) False
Tje advamtage pf a BNC connection is that it is an electrically secure by permanent connection once the two ends are joined together. |
|
Definition
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Term
Match he word or term to the picture
USB
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match he word or term to the picture
RJ-11
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match he word or term to the picture
BNC
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match he word or term to the picture
Phono Plug
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Match he word or term to the picture
RS-232
[image] |
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Definition
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Term
Cardiac pacemakers perform which of the following functions:
a) Provide overriding electrical stimuli b) Cause myocardial contraction c) Can provide resynchronization therapy for CHF d) Can act as a cardioverter-defibrillator e) All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
A permanent pacemaker battery typically lasts:
a) 1 to 3 years b) 3 to 5 years c) 5 to 10 years d) More than 10 years e) Indefinitely |
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Definition
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Term
Finish the following statement so that it is as accurate as possible:
"A pulse generator in asynchronous mode...
a) mimics intrinsic pacing of the patient." b) waits for atrial depolarization." c) looks for depolarization potential." d) produces an impulse at a set rate." e) constanty adjusts its rate." |
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Definition
d) produces an impulse at a set rate." |
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Term
If a lead wire fractures and the insulation remains intact, identify the following result:
a) The resistance will increase b) The voltage needed to capture will change. c) The battery in the pulse generator may over-heat d) The resistance will decrease e) All of the above can happen |
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Definition
a) The resistance will increase |
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Term
If the insulation breaks and exposes the intact lead wire to body fluid, identify the following result:
a) The resistance will increase b) The voltage needed to capture will change c) The battery in the pulse generator may over-heat d) The resistance will decrease e) All of the above can happen |
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Definition
d) The resistance will decrease |
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Term
Identify which of the following would not be a major reason to extract a lead.
a) Lead wire fracture b) New technology results in a better lead design c) Scar tissue on lead tip interferes with capture d) Infection e) Lead insulation damage |
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Definition
b) New technology results in a better lead design |
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Term
Electrical depolarization of the myocardium results in:
a) congestive heart failure b) mechanical contraction c) myocardial infarction d) respiratory variation e) PVCs |
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Definition
b) mechanical contraction |
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Term
Which of the following imaging modalities would be most appropriate to perform prior to a cardiac catheterization procedure, assuming that the cath procedure is non-emergent?
a) vascular ultrasound of the femoral vessels b) coronary fluoroscopy c) PET scan d) echocardiography e) MRI |
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Definition
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Term
Finish the following statement so that it is as accurate as possible:
"A pulse generator is synchronous mode...
a) mimics intrinsic pacing of the patient." b) waits for atrial depolarization." c) looks for depolarization potential." d) produces an impulse at a set rate." e) constanty adjusts its rate." |
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Definition
e) constanty adjusts its rate." |
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Term
Your favorite interventional cardiologist is inserting a single-lead pacemaker in the cath lab. Where would you anticipate the generator case to be placed in the majority of the cases?
a) In the right chest wall b) In a pouch at the patient's waist c) In the left chest wall d) In the abdominal cavity e) Hanging from a strap around the patient's neck |
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Definition
c) In the left chest wall |
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Term
Your favorite interventional cardiologist is inserting a multi-lead pacemaker. She placed leads in the right atrium and ventricle, plus two other locations. What type of pacemaker is she most-likely implanting?
a) an asynchronous pacer b) a PTCA pacemaker c) a synchronous pacer d) a bipolar pacemaker e) a defibrillating pacer |
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Definition
e) a defibrillating pacer |
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Term
a) True or b) False
Tined leads are place in the atria or ventricles |
|
Definition
|
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Term
a) True or b) False
Screw-in leads are placed only in the ventricles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a) True or b) False
Epicardial leads are placed using the PTCA technique |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
a) True or b) False
Endocardial leads can be unipolar or bipolar |
|
Definition
|
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Term
a) True or b) False
Epicardial leads are placed in children so that the leads can stretch |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
If a lead needs to be placed in the left ventricle, it is in a branch of of the Left Coronary Vein |
|
Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
The lead tip is always the negative pole of the lead |
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Definition
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Term
Why would you not leave an external pulse generator in place for longer than 10 days?
a) The patient must have a catheterization before the 10 day limit b) The patient may have another MI c) The batteries only last a maximum of 10 days d) The pacing leads become endothelialized e) The pacing lead must be permanently embedded in the endothelium |
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Definition
d) The pacing leads become endothelialized |
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Term
Which department places most of the external pulse generators?
a) The Emergency Department b) The Endoscopic Surgery Suites c) The Cath Lab/Invasive Cardiology d) The General Surgery Department e) None of the above are correct |
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Definition
a) The Emergency Department |
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Term
Can you see a pacemaker on an X-ray?
a) Always b) Sometimes c) Never |
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Definition
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Term
Since you can use x-rays to see a pacemaker, what kind of energy does the cardiologist use to set, reset, analyze, and query a pacemaker?
a) x-rays b) electronic pulses of energy c) photoplethysmography d) microwaves e) magnetic pulses |
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Definition
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Term
Mr. Jones, your patient, has a pacemaker that has been in place for almost 8 years and the pacer analyzer shows that ther is sufficient power for another year. Which of the following devices, according to the lecture notes, would you suggest your patient avoid until he receives his new generator?
a) microwave ovens b) cell phones c) iPods and other MP3 players d) high-power lines e) magnetic resonance imaging |
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Definition
e) magnetic resonance imaging |
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Term
Emergency pacing leads are:
a) smooth bare metal but they will simply slide out, and are therefore unacceptable b) screw-in so that they can be anchored in-place but unscrewed prior to permanent leads c) tined so that they do not slip out and can be used as permanent leads d) are placed epicardially and can be easily removed e) None of the above answers are correct |
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Definition
e) None of the above answers are correct |
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Term
a) True or b) False
Pacemaker energy output is based on pulse amplitude and duration. There cannot be a depolarization event if there is no capture. |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
The signal pulse amplitude is measure on the Y-axis in volts and the pulse duration is measured on the X-axis in milliseconds |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
An implanted pacer battery typically lasts 5-8 years |
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Definition
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Term
Identify the degree of risk of a negative outcome (death, cardiac arrest or myocardial infarction) during cardiac catheterization.
a) Around 5 in 100 have a negative outcome b) Around 2 in 100 have a negative outcome c) More than 5% have a negative outcome d) Fewer than 1 in 200 has a negative outcome e) None of these statistics are correct |
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Definition
e) None of these statistics are correct |
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Term
Identify which of the following conditions would predispose a patient to higher risk during cardiac catheterization.
a) unstable angina b) LV ejection fraction of less that 35% c) sever triple vessel disease d) congestive heart failure e) any one of the above are high risk |
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Definition
e) any one of the above are high risk |
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Term
Identify which of the following is a contraindication for performing an angiographic cath procedure:
a) atrial fibrillation b) renal failure c) 38% LV ejection fraction d) third degree heart block e) previous catheterization |
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Definition
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Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab
Invasive Cardiologist
a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies c) Assists the "Scrub Tech" d) Directs the team e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient |
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Definition
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Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab
Registered Nurse
a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies c) Assists the "Scrub Tech" d) Directs the team e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient |
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Definition
b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies |
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Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab
Rad Tech
a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies c) Assists the "Scrub Tech" d) Directs the team e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient |
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Definition
e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient |
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Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab
Circulator
a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies c) Assists the "Scrub Tech" d) Directs the team e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient |
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Definition
c) Assists the "Scrub Tech" |
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Term
Match th person to their most appropriate duty or responsibility in the Cath Lab
Scrub Tech
a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care b) Assists the physician with patient care emergencies c) Assists the "Scrub Tech" d) Directs the team e) Responsible for safety of the team and patient |
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Definition
a) Assists the physician tableside with patient care |
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Term
Who on the team is responsible for monitoring the condition of the patient?
a) MD b) RN c) RT d) RCIS e) All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
The term for the device in the catheterization lab called the "C-arm" is called that because the "C" stands for "catheteriztion" |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
It would be rare to find a cath lab in which the x-ray and fluoroscopic imaging is incompatible with PACS and DICOM. |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
The RN is the only one in the Cath Suite that is allowed to inject medication and therefore is the person who will operate the contrast power injector |
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Definition
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Term
a) True or b) False
A temporary external pacemaker can be in place for up to 10 days, but an intra-aortic ballon pump can be used for 30 days or longer. |
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Definition
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Term
Normal blood desaturation is considered to be ~75% in almost all veins. In which part of the heart is the blood essentially unsaturated? |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the place in the body where venous blood flows away from the heart. |
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Definition
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Term
Which part of the heart DOES NOT receive substantial blood flow during systole, but instead, the majority of flow occurs during diastole? |
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Definition
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Term
What is the name of the structure that separates the ventricles? |
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Definition
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Term
Describe the order in which the cardiac chambers contract. |
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Definition
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